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Posted to rec.audio.tech,rec.audio.opinion
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![]() mc wrote: "Arny Krueger" wrote in message ... In the service manuals for certain digital preamps, Sony instructs that the adjustment for harmonic distortion must be performed with a signal source delivered by the coaxial input. This shows that in some cases, the digital input receiver can suffer with an optical connection, in a measurable way. No excuse for this kind of flaw at all. Indeed, because of the elimination of EMI with optical, if anything Sony should be recommending the use of the optical input for critical adjustments. I was wondering the same thing. If it's digital, why isn't it absolutely bit-for-bit identical both ways? The optical input would be immune to electromagnetic noise, and that should be the only difference. Normally they should be indistinguishable because electromagnetic noise strong enough to disrupt a digital signal is rare. And if the digital signal *does* get disrupted the effect is sudden, huge and very evident.. There's no 'gradual degradation' with digital signals like losing some HF or adding a bit of hum. Either it works or it doesn't. Therefore comparisons about quality are *almost* entirely bogus from first principles. The exception as I understand it is jitter on the digital signal. If the clock recovery is poorly implemented, I believe this can degrade the audio a bit. Graham |
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