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#1
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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
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![]() "dave weil" wrote in message ... On Wed, 28 Dec 2005 23:02:12 GMT, wrote: Well, yes. The "marketplace" didn't insist, did it? Then there are no people in the marketplace? Actually I never said the marketplace was what caused change Actually you did. Or *should* cause change. Or is the only thing that *should* casue change. Deny that at your own peril. Supply the quote. I recall saying that capitalism was moving towards breaking down barriers and thereby causing change, Inever said it was the only vehicle or that it should be. |
#2
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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
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![]() wrote in message ink.net... "dave weil" wrote in message ... On Wed, 28 Dec 2005 23:02:12 GMT, wrote: Well, yes. The "marketplace" didn't insist, did it? Then there are no people in the marketplace? Actually I never said the marketplace was what caused change Actually you did. Or *should* cause change. Or is the only thing that *should* casue change. Deny that at your own peril. Supply the quote. I recall saying that capitalism was moving towards breaking down barriers and thereby causing change, Inever said it was the only vehicle or that it should be. Capitalism does not break down social barriers and cause change. Even Rand was not that stupid. Capitalism is strictly an economic system that enables capital growth, income, production and services to occur ina relatively orderly and productive fashion. -- Posted via NewsDemon.com - Premium Uncensored Newsgroup Service -------http://www.NewsDemon.com------ Unlimited Access, Anonymous Accounts, Uncensored Broadband Access |
#3
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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
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![]() "Clyde Slick" wrote in message ... wrote in message ink.net... "dave weil" wrote in message ... On Wed, 28 Dec 2005 23:02:12 GMT, wrote: Well, yes. The "marketplace" didn't insist, did it? Then there are no people in the marketplace? Actually I never said the marketplace was what caused change Actually you did. Or *should* cause change. Or is the only thing that *should* casue change. Deny that at your own peril. Supply the quote. I recall saying that capitalism was moving towards breaking down barriers and thereby causing change, Inever said it was the only vehicle or that it should be. Capitalism does not break down social barriers and cause change. Even Rand was not that stupid. Capitalism is strictly an economic system that enables capital growth, income, production and services to occur ina relatively orderly and productive fashion. Rand noted that there is a "correlation between racism and and political controls in the semifree economies of of the 19th century. Racial and/or religious persecutions of minorities stood to inverse ratio to the degeree of a country's freedom. Racism was strongest in the more controlled economies such as Russia and Germany, and weakest in in England, then the freest country in Europe. It is capitalism that gave mankind the first steps towards a rational way of life. It is capitalism that broke through national and ratioanl barriers, by means of free trade. It is capitalism that abolished serfdom and slavery in all the civilized countries of the world. It is th capitalist North that destroyed the slavery of the agrarian-feudal Southin the United States." That's from her essay on racism in The Virtue of Selfishness. As I said, people with something to sell tend not to care about the color of the skin of their customers. They'd rather not lose or close out a significant customer base. See also: http://www.capitalism.org/faq/racism.htm Capitalism is a system of individual rights -- it is a necessary political condition to the banishment of racism, where it results in the violation of individual rights. The only protection a man needs from racism is the protection of his rights -- specifically protection from the initiation of force, whether it be a knife held at ones throat by a Black Panther, or the noose held by a member of the KKK. Thomas Sowell writes on the subject as well at: http://www.capmag.com/article.asp?ID=4457 An excerpt: Far from existing from time immemorial, as many have assumed, racially segregated seating in public transportation began in the South in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Those who see government as the solution to social problems may be surprised to learn that it was government which created this problem. Many, if not most, municipal transit systems were privately owned in the 19th century and the private owners of these systems had no incentive to segregate the races. These owners may have been racists themselves but they were in business to make a profit -- and you don't make a profit by alienating a lot of your customers. There was not enough market demand for Jim Crow seating on municipal transit to bring it about. I stand by my statement. |
#4
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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
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Date: Thu, 29 Dec 2005 05:11:25 GMT Rand noted that there is a "correlation between racism and and political controls in the semifree economies of of the 19th century. Racial and/or religious persecutions of minorities stood to inverse ratio to the degeree of a country's freedom. Racism was strongest in the more controlled economies such as Russia and Germany, and weakest in in England, then the freest country in Europe. So Rand wasn't smart enough to know that correlation does not equal causation? I find that hard to believe. I remember from my statistics analysis course that in areas with harder pavement, the mortality rate is higher. Seems that lots of elderly people die when shoveling snow off frozen pavement. Obviously the pavement has nothing to do with it. You can justify rasicm with statistics any old day. By the way, you can justify it with the Bible too. |
#5
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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
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![]() wrote in message ink.net... "Clyde Slick" wrote in message ... wrote in message ink.net... "dave weil" wrote in message ... On Wed, 28 Dec 2005 23:02:12 GMT, wrote: Well, yes. The "marketplace" didn't insist, did it? Then there are no people in the marketplace? Actually I never said the marketplace was what caused change Actually you did. Or *should* cause change. Or is the only thing that *should* casue change. Deny that at your own peril. Supply the quote. I recall saying that capitalism was moving towards breaking down barriers and thereby causing change, Inever said it was the only vehicle or that it should be. Capitalism does not break down social barriers and cause change. Even Rand was not that stupid. Capitalism is strictly an economic system that enables capital growth, income, production and services to occur ina relatively orderly and productive fashion. Rand noted that there is a "correlation between racism and and political controls in the semifree economies of of the 19th century. Racial and/or religious persecutions of minorities stood to inverse ratio to the degeree of a country's freedom. Racism was strongest in the more controlled economies such as Russia and Germany, and weakest in in England, then the freest country in Europe. When I lived in Britain in the late 60's, I was shocked at the intensity of overt racism I found directed towards Indians and Pakistanis. It is capitalism that gave mankind the first steps towards a rational way of life. It is capitalism that broke through national and ratioanl barriers, by means of free trade. It is capitalism that abolished serfdom and slavery in all the civilized countries of the world. It is th capitalist North that destroyed the slavery of the agrarian-feudal Southin the United States." The slave trade was run by capitalists. They capture, transportation, buying and selling of salves was a capitalistic venture. That's from her essay on racism in The Virtue of Selfishness. As I said, people with something to sell tend not to care about the color of the skin of their customers. They'd rather not lose or close out a significant customer base. Howver, they did care about the color of of skin of their "Product". See also: http://www.capitalism.org/faq/racism.htm Capitalism is a system of individual rights -- it is a necessary political condition to the banishment of racism, where it results in the violation of individual rights. Capitalism is NOT a system of rights. It is strictly an organization of the economy, of production, supply, trade, and money. The only protection a man needs from racism is the protection of his rights -- specifically protection from the initiation of force, whether it be a knife held at ones throat by a Black Panther, or the noose held by a member of the KKK. Unfortunatley, the only viable protection of rights comes from a free representative government. Thomas Sowell writes on the subject as well at: http://www.capmag.com/article.asp?ID=4457 An excerpt: Far from existing from time immemorial, as many have assumed, racially segregated seating in public transportation began in the South in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Yes, right after the Civil War ended. Duh, public transportation itself only became prevalent in the mid to late 19th century, after the Civil War. Those who see government as the solution to social problems may be surprised to learn that it was government which created this problem. Many, if not most, municipal transit systems were privately owned in the 19th century and the private owners of these systems had no incentive to segregate the races. Duh, not if white people, the majority of the travelling public, strongly preferrede segregation. These owners may have been racists themselves but they were in business to make a profit -- and you don't make a profit by alienating a lot of your customers. duh, they were mostly whiote racists!! There was not enough market demand for Jim Crow seating on municipal transit to bring it about. I stand by my statement. You are SO, SO, mixed up. -- Posted via NewsDemon.com - Premium Uncensored Newsgroup Service -------http://www.NewsDemon.com------ Unlimited Access, Anonymous Accounts, Uncensored Broadband Access |
#6
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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
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![]() "Clyde Slick" wrote in message ... wrote in message ink.net... "Clyde Slick" wrote in message ... wrote in message ink.net... "dave weil" wrote in message ... On Wed, 28 Dec 2005 23:02:12 GMT, wrote: Well, yes. The "marketplace" didn't insist, did it? Then there are no people in the marketplace? Actually I never said the marketplace was what caused change Actually you did. Or *should* cause change. Or is the only thing that *should* casue change. Deny that at your own peril. Supply the quote. I recall saying that capitalism was moving towards breaking down barriers and thereby causing change, Inever said it was the only vehicle or that it should be. Capitalism does not break down social barriers and cause change. Even Rand was not that stupid. Capitalism is strictly an economic system that enables capital growth, income, production and services to occur ina relatively orderly and productive fashion. Rand noted that there is a "correlation between racism and and political controls in the semifree economies of of the 19th century. Racial and/or religious persecutions of minorities stood to inverse ratio to the degeree of a country's freedom. Racism was strongest in the more controlled economies such as Russia and Germany, and weakest in in England, then the freest country in Europe. When I lived in Britain in the late 60's, I was shocked at the intensity of overt racism I found directed towards Indians and Pakistanis. As has been well documented. Their rights however are protected under law. It is capitalism that gave mankind the first steps towards a rational way of life. It is capitalism that broke through national and ratioanl barriers, by means of free trade. It is capitalism that abolished serfdom and slavery in all the civilized countries of the world. It is th capitalist North that destroyed the slavery of the agrarian-feudal Southin the United States." The slave trade was run by capitalists. They capture, transportation, buying and selling of salves was a capitalistic venture. No argument. It was also aided by Africans in Africa. That's from her essay on racism in The Virtue of Selfishness. As I said, people with something to sell tend not to care about the color of the skin of their customers. They'd rather not lose or close out a significant customer base. Howver, they did care about the color of of skin of their "Product". Here yes, in Africa, it was other Africans. as long as they were other tribes. See also: http://www.capitalism.org/faq/racism.htm Capitalism is a system of individual rights -- it is a necessary political condition to the banishment of racism, where it results in the violation of individual rights. Capitalism is NOT a system of rights. It is strictly an organization of the economy, of production, supply, trade, and money. An opinion you get to have. The only protection a man needs from racism is the protection of his rights -- specifically protection from the initiation of force, whether it be a knife held at ones throat by a Black Panther, or the noose held by a member of the KKK. Unfortunatley, the only viable protection of rights comes from a free representative government. Who has said otherwise? Thomas Sowell writes on the subject as well at: http://www.capmag.com/article.asp?ID=4457 An excerpt: Far from existing from time immemorial, as many have assumed, racially segregated seating in public transportation began in the South in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Yes, right after the Civil War ended. Duh, public transportation itself only became prevalent in the mid to late 19th century, after the Civil War. But the fact still remains that the private sector transportation companies were generally not segregating, that came from the government, which is why their needs to be a system of rights have the force of law behind them. Those who see government as the solution to social problems may be surprised to learn that it was government which created this problem. Many, if not most, municipal transit systems were privately owned in the 19th century and the private owners of these systems had no incentive to segregate the races. Duh, not if white people, the majority of the travelling public, strongly preferrede segregation. But the point is it wasn't done by private carriers. These owners may have been racists themselves but they were in business to make a profit -- and you don't make a profit by alienating a lot of your customers. duh, they were mostly white racists!! I think you missed the point AGAIN. Even if the owners of the private companies were racist, they were not segregating, until the government became the owners of the transit companies and forced it. There was not enough market demand for Jim Crow seating on municipal transit to bring it about. I stand by my statement. You are SO, SO, mixed up. Priavte transit comapnies were not segregating their passengers. Capitalism didn't give a **** about any color other than the money. |
#7
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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
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![]() wrote in message ink.net... "Clyde Slick" wrote in message ... wrote in message ink.net... "Clyde Slick" wrote in message ... wrote in message ink.net... "dave weil" wrote in message ... On Wed, 28 Dec 2005 23:02:12 GMT, wrote: Well, yes. The "marketplace" didn't insist, did it? Then there are no people in the marketplace? Actually I never said the marketplace was what caused change Actually you did. Or *should* cause change. Or is the only thing that *should* casue change. Deny that at your own peril. Supply the quote. I recall saying that capitalism was moving towards breaking down barriers and thereby causing change, Inever said it was the only vehicle or that it should be. Capitalism does not break down social barriers and cause change. Even Rand was not that stupid. Capitalism is strictly an economic system that enables capital growth, income, production and services to occur ina relatively orderly and productive fashion. Rand noted that there is a "correlation between racism and and political controls in the semifree economies of of the 19th century. Racial and/or religious persecutions of minorities stood to inverse ratio to the degeree of a country's freedom. Racism was strongest in the more controlled economies such as Russia and Germany, and weakest in in England, then the freest country in Europe. When I lived in Britain in the late 60's, I was shocked at the intensity of overt racism I found directed towards Indians and Pakistanis. As has been well documented. Their rights however are protected under law. that was a vry concise statement. You managed to contradict yourself twice in as litle as 12 words. First, about racism in Britain, and second, about governmennt rather than capitalism as being the guarantor of individual rights vs racism in society. See also: http://www.capitalism.org/faq/racism.htm Capitalism is a system of individual rights -- it is a necessary political condition to the banishment of racism, where it results in the violation of individual rights. Capitalism is NOT a system of rights. It is strictly an organization of the economy, of production, supply, trade, and money. An opinion you get to have. One attribue of capitalism is that it is neutral. It is government that protects rights, and gets to decide which rights it wishes to protect. The only protection a man needs from racism is the protection of his rights -- specifically protection from the initiation of force, whether it be a knife held at ones throat by a Black Panther, or the noose held by a member of the KKK. Unfortunatley, the only viable protection of rights comes from a free representative government. Who has said otherwise? Duh....Mikey did. Thomas Sowell writes on the subject as well at: http://www.capmag.com/article.asp?ID=4457 An excerpt: Far from existing from time immemorial, as many have assumed, racially segregated seating in public transportation began in the South in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Yes, right after the Civil War ended. Duh, public transportation itself only became prevalent in the mid to late 19th century, after the Civil War. But the fact still remains that the private sector transportation companies were generally not segregating, that came from the government, which is why their needs to be a system of rights have the force of law behind them. Some private sector transporation companies were segregated, particularly privately owned municipal bus systems. Plus, many pother private businesses were segregated. It was not oedered by the government. Those who see government as the solution to social problems may be surprised to learn that it was government which created this problem. Many, if not most, municipal transit systems were privately owned in the 19th century and the private owners of these systems had no incentive to segregate the races. Duh, not if white people, the majority of the travelling public, strongly preferrede segregation. But the point is it wasn't done by private carriers. But in many cases, it was. These owners may have been racists themselves but they were in business to make a profit -- and you don't make a profit by alienating a lot of your customers. duh, they were mostly white racists!! I think you missed the point AGAIN. Even if the owners of the private companies were racist, they were not segregating, until the government became the owners of the transit companies and forced it. No. Privately owned municpal bus companies were segregated. There was not enough market demand for Jim Crow seating on municipal transit to bring it about. I stand by my statement. You are SO, SO, mixed up. Priavte transit comapnies were not segregating their passengers. Capitalism didn't give a **** about any color other than the money. And the money demanded the desegregation. -- Posted via NewsDemon.com - Premium Uncensored Newsgroup Service -------http://www.NewsDemon.com------ Unlimited Access, Anonymous Accounts, Uncensored Broadband Access |
#8
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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
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![]() wrote in message ink.net... \ Priavte transit comapnies were not segregating their passengers. Capitalism didn't give a **** about any color other than the money. Should have read that "the money" demanded segregation -- Posted via NewsDemon.com - Premium Uncensored Newsgroup Service -------http://www.NewsDemon.com------ Unlimited Access, Anonymous Accounts, Uncensored Broadband Access |
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