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ups.com...

wrote:
wrote in message
oups.com...

wrote:
Is it possible that audio devices that measure within .1 db across the
audible bandwidth would sound alike?

No personal experimental evidence but at a guess some would , some
would not. Just like pianos, flutes, violins etc.

They're not the same as pianos and flutes or violins, since they depend
on
much different factors to get their sound but then you knew that.

Next idiot question.?
Always willing to oblige.
Ludovic Mirabel.

To demonstrate your idiocy? Obviously.

Musical instrument are not the same as electronics and are dependent on
materials, method of construction, sometimes even the placce they are
built.

Audio equipment depend on the parts being properly assembled. It doesn't
matter if they are made in German, Thailand, China, or Ohio.

Is there some level of accuracy, that if met by 2 or more components
would
make it possible for them to sound the same?
__________________________________________________ _____________
Musical instrument are not the same as electronics and are dependent on
materials, method of construction, sometimes even the placce they are
built.

That must make it a cinch for blind testing expert like you to tell one
Bosendoerfer from another. Especially if you use that method for
recognising subtle differnces that has no superior relative called
ABX..
Will you begin training now? How about something easy to begin with.
ABX test of Yamaha piano vs. a Bosendorfer.
NYOB- at one time a thought you were something like a wasp buzzing
around one's head.
I changed my view now. You start my mornings on the right foot, gaily.
Please, don't quit. Don't let the nasties discourage you. You're my one
and only NYOB, the representative objectivist spokesman.
Long may you thrive waving the chapel's flag
Ludovic Mirabel

I guess this means you can't honestly answer the question, so you're dancing
away from it.

One more time: Is there a level of accuracy that if met, would allow 2 or
more components to sound the same?

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