"Arny Krueger" wrote in message
...

It obviously does matter. While one ear is deaf to the
effect of sound above 20kHz or so, two ears are
differentially sensitive to 50 kHz or more From
http://web.mit.edu/2.972/www/reports/ear/ear.html, the
ear is sensitive to the difference of arrival time of a
sound to each ear to 10 microseconds. Quoting, "The brain
is sensitive to differences in time of arrival of as
small as 10 microseconds, and can use this to pinpoint
the location of the sound." This corresponds to a steady
state tone of 100,000 Hz.

Inability to tell the difference between a well-documented fact and an
unsupported assertion, noted.

This is not a paper that has been referred or published in a professional
journal.

It's just a class report for an undergraduate class called "How Things
Work".

Here's the home page for the class:

http://web.mit.edu/2.972/OldFiles/www/body.html

It has no proper footnotes, just some broad references.

Rather than arguing the merits of the paper why address Moreins
grossly flawed logic.

Maybe in terms you and he can understand.... the situation is this.
Consider the brain as a high bandwidth scope...easily capable of
measuring ITD or IPD in the range of 10 usec. But it is has 2 bandwidth
limited mics feeding its inputs called ears.
Now just because the brain can resolve 10 usec time or phase delays
has no real bearing on the bandwidth of the ears.

ScottW