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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
Robert Morein
 
Posts: n/a
Default Is this true regarding digital recording?


"MINe 109" wrote in message
...
In article ,
"Arny Krueger" wrote:

"Jenn" wrote in message

In article ,
"Arny Krueger" wrote:

"MINe 109" wrote in message

In article
, "Arny
Krueger" wrote:

Even though you can't hear these frequencies, they add
something subliminal to the way the music affects you.

Interesting theory, but how are you going show that
this is right if there are no conscous affects?

Oohashi measured brain waves to do this.

http://jn.physiology.org/cgi/content/full/83/6/3548

And if you believe that....

Why don't you dispute it then?


Been there, done that many times, Stephen should be well-aware of the
details, He's trolling, as usual.


You asked how one could show the affects of high frequencies. Oohashi
did that. Since you know he did so, that makes you the troll.

And you didn't dispute so much as reject the findings.

Stephen


Yes, and Arny has to deal with this, too:
http://illumin.usc.edu/article.php?articleID=45&page=3

If the brain can localize based upon differential delays as small as 10 us,
this implies some discrimination of higher frequencies, not by the mechanism
that senses tone, but by something else. Mathematically, as I am sure you
are aware, this is because there is no such thing as a 20 kHz sine wave that
starts up from nothing. The Fourier series of the startup of a perfect tone
includes higher order coefficients that die away as t -- infinity.

The only mathematical artifacts that are available to discriminate a 10 us
difference are these transient Fourier coefficients. We can't hear the
tones, but somehow, these coefficients get into the brain with the
recognition by neural circuitry that they represent ultrasonics.