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Posted to rec.audio.opinion
Arny Krueger
 
Posts: n/a
Default Is this true regarding digital recording?

"Robert Morein" wrote in message

"Jenn" wrote in message
...
In article ,
"Arny Krueger" wrote:

"MINe 109" wrote in message

In article
, "Arny
Krueger" wrote:
Even though you can't hear these frequencies, they
add something subliminal to the way the music
affects you.

Interesting theory, but how are you going show that
this is right if there are no conscous affects?

Oohashi measured brain waves to do this.

http://jn.physiology.org/cgi/content/full/83/6/3548

And if you believe that....


Why don't you dispute it then?


It obviously does matter. While one ear is deaf to the
effect of sound above 20kHz or so, two ears are
differentially sensitive to 50 kHz or more From
http://web.mit.edu/2.972/www/reports/ear/ear.html, the
ear is sensitive to the difference of arrival time of a
sound to each ear to 10 microseconds. Quoting, "The brain
is sensitive to differences in time of arrival of as
small as 10 microseconds, and can use this to pinpoint
the location of the sound." This corresponds to a steady
state tone of 100,000 Hz.


Inability to tell the difference between a well-documented fact and an
unsupported assertion, noted.

This is not a paper that has been referred or published in a professional
journal.

It's just a class report for an undergraduate class called "How Things
Work".

Here's the home page for the class:

http://web.mit.edu/2.972/OldFiles/www/body.html

It has no proper footnotes, just some broad references.