On Mon, 24 Oct 2005 17:19:47 -0400, "Arny Krueger"
wrote:


(1) If a so-called skeptic reports similar impressions to a
non-skeptic, then he's obviously not really a skeptic.

Really, Arnie? What if the phenomenum both are observing exists?
Should not then both, having similar senses, report similar results,
skeptic or otherwise? Or are you suggesting that either skeptics or
non-skeptics are intrinsically liars?