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  #42   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
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"Porky" wrote in message ...
I agree with everything you've said, except that it doesn't apply to
loudspeakers, you've just come up with a fancier variation of the
train/whistle model, which doesn't apply to speakers because the speaker is
reproducing a complex soundwave in toto from a single complex driving
source, what you're doing is the same as picking up the speaker and moving
it back and forth and that will certainly produce Doppler shift. It isn't
that the motion is dynamic, it's that the motion is coming from a single
source which producing a complex sound, that is the reason a speaker doesn't
produce doppler shift when reproducing music.


Since you fail to see the clear and obvious equivalence and relevance,
all I can say is that you are an idiot.
  #43   Report Post  
Mark
 
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If you set up your coupling tube so that the speaker cone pushes the
air completly and the air moves in the tube without loss and at the
far end the air pushes the mic diaphram completly SO THAT THE SPEKAER
CONE AND MIC DIPHRAM ARE MOVING TOGETHER IN LOCK STEP WITH THE SAME
DISPLACEMENT, then you are correct, there is no Doppler effect. Note
that in this case the distance between the Rx and Tx is constant and
there is no Doppler effect.

In any other case where the mic diaphram is not moving in lock step
with the cone, there will be a Doppler effect.


Your assessment is correct, but not exactly for the reason you state.
The only way the transmitter and receiver can move in lock step is if
the propagation time is zero; and the only way that the propagation
time can be zero is if the sound velocity in the medium is infinite.
Of course, this is exactly what the Doppler equation,
fr/fs=1/(1-(vs/c)), predicts. For c--infinity, fr=fs.

Contrary to Bob Cain's false and unsubstantiated belief, dynamic
Doppler shift does occur in a tube, and a direct measurement of it
will be forthcoming.


Interesting,

If the Tx is vibrating at 50 Hz and 4 kHz, and the couling through
the tube is complete and lossless then the Rx cone will move with the
same displacement. You are correct and I take your point regarding
the prop delay. So the cones may not be in lock step due to the prop
delay and the relative motion due to the 50 Hz cone vibrations which
are not in phase may create Doppler to the 4 kHz...I agree.

But consider a SPECIAL CASE, where the distance from Rx to Tx is such
that the prop delay equals an integer number of wavelengths of 50Hz,
then the cones will be in lock step at 50 Hz. So perhaps the correct
answer for this special 100% coupled tube case, is that the Doppler is
a critical function of the distance between the Rx and Tx.

This is a very pathalogical case anyway. In nearly any real
situation, the Rx and Tx cones will not be in lock step so the
distance from Rx to Tx will be changing and Doppler will occur.

Mark
  #45   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
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The Ghost wrote:

For Doppler shift not to exist,
the propagation delay needs to be zero. But zero time delay is not
the same as zero phase shfit.


Doppler mixing occurs if and only if the coupling from Tx to
Rx is frequency dependant. If it is independant, the
distance between Tx and Rx, so long as it is fixed, is
irrelevant. It won't happen with a piston in a terminated
tube.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein


  #46   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
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Bob Cain wrote:



The Ghost wrote:

For Doppler shift not to exist,
the propagation delay needs to be zero. But zero time delay is not
the same as zero phase shfit.



Doppler mixing occurs if and only if the coupling from Tx to Rx is
frequency dependant. If it is independant, the distance between Tx and
Rx, so long as it is fixed, is irrelevant. It won't happen with a
piston in a terminated tube.


Bob


As a quasi-final note with respect to this whole dispute I'd
like to quote to this crossposted thread a response I just
gave Jim Carr to a post that was only in
alt.music.home-studio. This is all I've got to say until a
lot more has matured.

Jim Carr wrote:

Bob,


[compliment snipped]

... it looks like you're growing weary and a bit
irritable, so maybe you might want to drop it.



Yes, I have grown weary and irritable with respect to the ad
hominem crap, as well as utterly convinced that the correct
principle for Doppler mixing is that of frequency dependant
coupling between Tx and Rx. What remains to be done is to
take that principle to a full theory. That may not be at
all easy because it will be a field theory and they are
notoriously difficult to formulate from the principle on
which they are based.

If and when that theory is complete and boundry conditions
are imposed and the differential equations are solved, if
they are solvable, then we will have something predictive.
The common equation for Doppler shift will fall out of one
boundry condition, relative velocity of Rx relative to Tx
being static rather than dynamic. Even that will only be
valid for a single frequency under general conditions.

You'll probably never get what you want. I haven't seen
anyone post a formula that says, "If I put out a 50Hz tone
and a 1200Hz tone from a speaker with an excursion of 3mm
I will expect to see ..." and then follow it up with an
experiment that showed the predicted results and provided
a way to eliminate spurious information. I doubt anyone
will come through at this point.


Nor will anyone from any theory that uses the static Doppler
shift equation as its basic principle.

Those rec.audio.pro guys can get pretty arrogant and
nasty.


Yeah, I'm one of them. :-)

I haven't seen that much blustering since the Blizzard of
'79! If it were me I'd just take my ball and go home.

Anyway, not everyone here thinks you're an arrogant,
ignorant asshole. Well, at least not all three at once.


_LOL!_ My ball with regard to Doppler mixing is the
principle of frequency dependant coupling between Tx and Rx
and I will indeed take it home until I or I and a
collaborator who is facile with the necessasary math toolkit
(div, grad, curl, infinitessimal volumes, and other vector
calculus methods) can return with a fleshed out theory from
first principles. I am confident that can be done but far
less confident that I can do it.


Thanks,

Bob

--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein
  #47   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
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Bob Cain wrote in message ...
The Ghost wrote:

For Doppler shift not to exist,
the propagation delay needs to be zero. But zero time delay is not
the same as zero phase shfit.


Doppler mixing occurs if and only if the coupling from Tx to
Rx is frequency dependant. If it is independant, the
distance between Tx and Rx, so long as it is fixed, is
irrelevant. It won't happen with a piston in a terminated
tube.


And that is nothing more than another one of your nonsensical,
umsubstantiated beliefs.
  #48   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
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The Ghost wrote:

Doppler mixing occurs if and only if the coupling from Tx to
Rx is frequency dependant. If it is independant, the
distance between Tx and Rx, so long as it is fixed, is
irrelevant. It won't happen with a piston in a terminated
tube.



And that is nothing more than another one of your nonsensical,
umsubstantiated beliefs.


Then it should be quite easy for you to formally refute it.
Have at it. Yeah, right. You're a washed up antisocial
who once, long ago, did some hearing research with someone
who actually was important but you've been isolated by your
sociopathy to where your rage is all you have left and it
simply reflects what you think you should have been but for
all the idiots. You can use tables to give the answers to
problems that have been solved by others but have no
understanding at all below that level. You also seem
incapable of learning.

If that's wrong, prove otherwise with an actual display of
any technical acumen. I can't figure out why you are even
on usenet. You have nothing whatsoever to contribute other
than insults that would get your head torn off with ****
down the remaining food pipe were you to deliver them face
to face. Probably why you're afraid to leave your room.

If you can show you actually know anything by giving a
logical proof of your theory with all axioms clearly stated
and available for challenge and all non-axiomatic formulae
dependant only on what has been already formally derived and
with all constants and variables given precise physical
meaning, I'll bow down before you. I can't see why such a
thing should even be a challenge to one such as yourself.

Or rage on, asshole, because that's all anyone expects from
you anyway.

Your "experiments" if you actually have performed any are
such kludges that nothing at all can be concluded from them.
They show an utter disregard for science, or more likely
no understanding of what science is.

I know one of your couple of sock puppets will step up to
defend you and tell us that they know you really are an
expert but that's pretty transparent by now.

Sorry to take the gloves off in front of everybody else but
I do feel a whole lot better after telling it like it is.

I took alt.sci.physics.acoustics off this because they are
all much too polite for such a reality check. You'll
probably re-post it there anyway looking for sympathy.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein
  #49   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
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Bob Cain wrote in message ...


Yes, I have grown weary and irritable with respect to the ad
hominem crap,......


Excuse me while I reach for an air sickness bag, you pathetic and
contemptable piece of human waste. After all of the ad hominem
attacks that you have bestowed upon me recently, and over the last 3-4
years, you are now whining about the so-called "ad hominem" crap.

.......as well as utterly convinced that the correct
principle for Doppler mixing is that of frequency dependant
coupling between Tx and Rx.


That is utter nonsensical drivel.

What remains to be done is to take that principle to a full theory.


The only thing that remains to be done is to discredit you entirely on
the issue of dynamic Doppler shift/distiortion. As you well know,
that is in process. It is baout time that you confront reality and
admit that you have been wrong about every aspect of this issue.


Anyway, not everyone here thinks you're an arrogant,
ignorant asshole. Well, at least not all three at once.



Yes, all three at once. And, anyone who doesn't is either in bed with
this scumbag is brain dead (my unbiased opinion, of course).


_LOL!_ My ball with regard to Doppler mixing is the
principle of frequency dependant coupling between Tx and Rx
and I will indeed take it home until I or I and a
collaborator who is facile with the necessasary math toolkit
(div, grad, curl, infinitessimal volumes, and other vector
calculus methods) can return with a fleshed out theory from
first principles. I am confident that can be done but far
less confident that I can do it.


At least you are right about one thing...you can't do it. And, since
your so-called Doppler-mixing principle is nothing more than
nonsensical drivel, neither can anyone else.

Lastly, the only thing that you have grown weary about is the fact
that your denial of dynamic Doppler shift in a tube has just been
proven wrong.....and you know it. The theoretical analysis shows that
dynamic Doppler shift does in fact exist in a tube. Direct
measurements, confirming the theoretical analysis, will also be
forthcoming. Bottom line, all of your unsubstantiated, mindless
beliefs have been proven wrong and you have been discredited.....and
you know it. But, rather than stand up like a man and admit it, you
would like everone to believe that you have simply "grown weary and
irritable." Please excuse me while I reach for another air sickness
bag.
  #50   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
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The Ghost wrote:

Lastly, the only thing that you have grown weary about is the fact
that your denial of dynamic Doppler shift in a tube has just been
proven wrong.....and you know it.


Nonsense. Prove its existence and its precise predictions
on paper or shut up. You can't. You do know what a proof
entails, right? All your crude posturing means absolutely
nothing in light of your inability to do that. Give us a
reason for your certainty that has a tad more credibility
than your hateful spew. State your axioms so that their
validity can be subject to verificaion and challenge; from
them formally derive equations that rely on nothing but the
axioms and equations already derived; define in precise
physical terms what every variable and constant is and end
up with an equation that precisely describes the effect.
Two tones, one dimensinal analysis will do if a more general
treatment escapes your razor sharp mind. You know the
routine. Or do you? At one time aquiring a Ph.D. in
anything technical required facility in that kind of proof.

Falling back on your posture that you don't spoon feed the
peanut gallery just won't do this time. You are in deep
enough with this that your reputation is on the line. If
you can't or won't prove your assertions, nothing you say
from here on out about anything has a lick of credibility.

Your experiments, if you have actually done any, are such
kludges that they disclose nothing of the source of dynamic
Doppler mixing.

You know what you must do now and I have nothing further to
say to you until you have done it or shown the intellectual
honesty to disclose the false assumption in your theory.
Should you succeed and should your proof stand up I will be
the first to acknowlege your skill at doing something that
has not been done before and I will do that as many places
as this debate has raged in no uncertain terms. A diet of
crow bothers me not in the least if something useful is
accomplished along the way.

I too will be attempting the same for mine and will shut up
about it until I have accomplished the same kind of proof
that I expect from you.

Until such a proven theory emerges, the whole business of
the source of dynamic Doppler mixing is speculation on all
sides.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein


  #51   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
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Bob Cain wrote in message ...
The Ghost wrote:

Lastly, the only thing that you have grown weary about is the fact
that your denial of dynamic Doppler shift in a tube has just been
proven wrong.....and you know it.


Nonsense. Prove its existence and its precise predictions
on paper or shut up. You can't. You do know what a proof
entails, right? All your crude posturing means absolutely
nothing in light of your inability to do that. Give us a
reason for your certainty that has a tad more credibility
than your hateful spew. State your axioms so that their
validity can be subject to verificaion and challenge; from
them formally derive equations that rely on nothing but the
axioms and equations already derived; define in precise
physical terms what every variable and constant is and end
up with an equation that precisely describes the effect.
Two tones, one dimensinal analysis will do if a more general
treatment escapes your razor sharp mind. You know the
routine. Or do you? At one time aquiring a Ph.D. in
anything technical required facility in that kind of proof.


Bob, you have a big mouth, a small mind and virtually no character.
You know that the idealized analysis of Doppler distortion produced by
a piston in one end of an infinite tube has been done, and you know
that the result disproves your unsubstantiated claim that Doppler
distortion does not exist under such conditions. I know that you know
the results of the analysis becasue I have been copied on email that
you have received regarding this matter. For you to pretend at this
point that you are still right about this issue is about as personally
and intellectually dishonest as it gets. Nothing would give me
greater pleasure right now than to post the personal email that you
have received regarding thiis issue and to expose you for the slime
ball that you are. However, out of respect for the wishes of the
person who has done the analysis, I am not going to do that at this
time. Nonetheless, the analysis, the predictions of the analysis and
the experimental results to confirm the predictions of the analysis
will be presented here in due time. The outcome is known and certain
and you know it, but you are a scumbag and you simply don't have the
character to stand up right now and admit that you are wrong.


Falling back on your posture that you don't spoon feed the
peanut gallery just won't do this time. You are in deep
enough with this that your reputation is on the line. If
you can't or won't prove your assertions, nothing you say
from here on out about anything has a lick of credibility.


Please, give me a break with the absurd rhetoric. This is little more
than a side game that I play with you solely for relaxation and
amusement.


Your experiments, if you have actually done any, are such
kludges that they disclose nothing of the source of dynamic
Doppler mixing.


For whatever reason, it seems that all you are able to do is make
outrageous, unsubstantiated assertions. Below is a contrary opinion
from an esteemed member of the acoustics community. He refers to my
experiment as "pure" and challenges you to cite so-called "spurious"
elements that you claimed existed. Naturally, like the technically
inept coward that you are, you dropped that challenge like a hot
potato.

---------------------------------------
Subject: Experimental Evidence for Dynamic Doppler Shift
From: Angelo Campanella
Newsgroups: alt.sci.physics.acoustics
Reply-To:

Bob Cain wrote in message ...
Evidence for existence of a phenomenon requires elimination
of spurious causes one way or another, either by
experimental setup or by having a _good_ characterization of
the spurious phenomena so that their effect can be removed
from the test data. How does your "experiment" do either so
that what remains can be legitimately regarded as evidence
of Doppler distortion?


OK. So specify the "spurious" elements in this otherwise pure
experiment. If you cannot cite any, perhaps there aren't any other
than
the nonlinear distortion that occurs in speakers whose voice coil is
swung out of the uniform magnetic field of the magnet system. But that
distortion is readily detected by measuring the 2nd and 3rd harmonic
level (which is not of concern other that it not exist).
------------------------------------


You know what you must do now and I have nothing further to
say to you until you have done it or shown the intellectual
honesty to disclose the false assumption in your theory.
Should you succeed and should your proof stand up I will be
the first to acknowlege your skill at doing something that
has not been done before and I will do that as many places
as this debate has raged in no uncertain terms. A diet of
crow bothers me not in the least if something useful is
accomplished along the way.


I'll believe that when I see it. Given that you already know the
outcome of the analysis of the piston in a tube, I suggest that you
start writing your concession speech right now.


I too will be attempting the same for mine and will shut up
about it until I have accomplished the same kind of proof
that I expect from you.


Shut up please, but otherwise don't waste your time attempting to
fight a battle that you have already lost.

Until such a proven theory emerges, the whole business of
the source of dynamic Doppler mixing is speculation on all
sides.


The theory exists and its confirmation is forthcoming. You just don't
have the personal integrity to admit it.
  #52   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
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Bob Cain wrote in message ...
The Ghost wrote:

Lastly, the only thing that you have grown weary about is the fact
that your denial of dynamic Doppler shift in a tube has just been
proven wrong.....and you know it.


Nonsense. Prove its existence and its precise predictions
on paper or shut up. You can't. You do know what a proof
entails, right? All your crude posturing means absolutely
nothing in light of your inability to do that.


......additional mindless, nonsensical drivel deleted......

For those who are interested, an exact mathematical analysis of the
Doppler distorton that is produced by a vibrating pistion in a tube
can be found at:

http://www.silcom.com/~aludwig/Physi...on/dopdist.htm

Bob Cain has been aware of this all along, but his ego has prevented
him from admitting it.
  #53   Report Post  
Randy Yates
 
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Bob and the rest of the group still reading this thread,

I can appreciate anyone who wants to see specifics, especially in a
controversial issue such as this. However, what keeps me from pursuing
this with you further is that I sense in you a higher desire to prove
yourself right than to find out the truth. For example, anytime
someone presents some equation or evidence, you knock it down by
invalidating the assumptions or other details that seem fairly
self-evident. Since, as I stated in another response in this thread
quite some time ago (to which I don't recall getting any responses),
ALL theories rest at some point on assumptions, this kind of dissipative
arguing can go on ad-infinitum.

The goal should be to find out the truth. I'm willing to admit I may
be wrong and examine other evidence. Can you?

--RY


Bob Cain writes:

The Ghost wrote:

Lastly, the only thing that you have grown weary about is the fact
that your denial of dynamic Doppler shift in a tube has just been
proven wrong.....and you know it.


Nonsense. Prove its existence and its precise predictions on paper or
shut up. You can't. You do know what a proof entails, right? All
your crude posturing means absolutely nothing in light of your
inability to do that. Give us a reason for your certainty that has a
tad more credibility than your hateful spew. State your axioms so
that their validity can be subject to verificaion and challenge; from
them formally derive equations that rely on nothing but the axioms and
equations already derived; define in precise physical terms what every
variable and constant is and end up with an equation that precisely
describes the effect. Two tones, one dimensinal analysis will do if a
more general treatment escapes your razor sharp mind. You know the
routine. Or do you? At one time aquiring a Ph.D. in anything
technical required facility in that kind of proof.

Falling back on your posture that you don't spoon feed the peanut
gallery just won't do this time. You are in deep enough with this
that your reputation is on the line. If you can't or won't prove your
assertions, nothing you say from here on out about anything has a lick
of credibility.

Your experiments, if you have actually done any, are such kludges that
they disclose nothing of the source of dynamic Doppler mixing.

You know what you must do now and I have nothing further to say to you
until you have done it or shown the intellectual honesty to disclose
the false assumption in your theory. Should you succeed and should
your proof stand up I will be the first to acknowlege your skill at
doing something that has not been done before and I will do that as
many places as this debate has raged in no uncertain terms. A diet of
crow bothers me not in the least if something useful is accomplished
along the way.

I too will be attempting the same for mine and will shut up about it
until I have accomplished the same kind of proof that I expect from
you.

Until such a proven theory emerges, the whole business of the source
of dynamic Doppler mixing is speculation on all sides.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no simpler."

A. Einstein


--
% Randy Yates % "My Shangri-la has gone away, fading like
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % the Beatles on 'Hey Jude'"
%%% 919-577-9882 %
%%%% % 'Shangri-La', *A New World Record*, ELO
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr
  #54   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
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The Ghost wrote:


http://www.silcom.com/~aludwig/Physi...on/dopdist.htm

Bob Cain has been aware of this all along, but his ego has prevented
him from admitting it.


He just put it up there today, fool, and you know that
because you were copied on the email I received telling me
about it.

I'll have at it. He told me it is just the type of proof
I'm asking for and if it is and it stands up to criticism,
which he has solicited, then I'm wrong. That process, if I
find anything to question, will occur privately between he
and I. However that resolves, or stalemates, I will report
the result.

I have said nothing about the private correspondence that
has gone on between us because it has been inconclusive.

I am _very_ pleased that Art is willing to engage at a
tecnical level on this.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein
  #55   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
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Randy Yates wrote:

For example, anytime
someone presents some equation or evidence, you knock it down by
invalidating the assumptions or other details that seem fairly
self-evident.


But that is the whole point. Things that seem self evident
are all too often incorrect on deeper analysis.

Since, as I stated in another response in this thread
quite some time ago (to which I don't recall getting any responses),
ALL theories rest at some point on assumptions, this kind of dissipative
arguing can go on ad-infinitum.


They rest on axioms that are in fact self evident. That the
Doppler equation for static velocities is applicable to time
varying ones without modification is by no means self
evident. That underpins most arguments for Doppler
distortion and is deserving of proof. Sokolich says it is
so proven in Pierces book. I am awaiting delivery of it now
to see if and how that was actually done.

The other argument for it appeals to the longitudinal nature
of acoustic waves, yet every acoustic case we have looked at
has an EM wave equivalent which gives the same results and
EM is transverse. What's up with that?

I'm no longer trying to determine whether it exists, I was
rather quickly persuaded of that. Now it is about why it
exists and I believe the reasons that have been given are wrong.


The goal should be to find out the truth. I'm willing to admit I may
be wrong and examine other evidence. Can you?


Does it sound like it yet? I've ordered a book that is said
to prove one of the axioms and Art Ludwig has consented to
engage in the kind of proof I think this deserves and to
enter into discussion with me about its specifics. That he
wishes to continue our discussion several weeks after it
began should indicate that at least he sees a real desire in
me to find and understand the truth as he obviously does
himself. However his in depth analysis turns out I admire
him greatly (and am very grateful) for his willingness to
perform it in public.

OTOH, if all your criticism means is that I haven't agreed
with you then perhaps a look in the mirror is appropriate.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein


  #56   Report Post  
Randy Yates
 
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Bob Cain writes:
[...]
Does it sound like it yet? I've ordered a book that is said to prove
one of the axioms and Art Ludwig has consented to engage in the kind
of proof I think this deserves and to enter into discussion with me
about its specifics. That he wishes to continue our discussion
several weeks after it began should indicate that at least he sees a

p real desire in me to find and understand the truth as he obviously
does himself. However his in depth analysis turns out I admire him
greatly (and am very grateful) for his willingness to perform it in
public.


I agree - I appreciate what Art is doing as well.

OTOH, if all your criticism means is that I haven't agreed with you


Not at all, Bob. In fact, I get a charge out of seeing a false belief of
my own get overturned. Makes me realize the universe is even more wondrous
than I thought.

then perhaps a look in the mirror is appropriate.


As Aerosmith said in a song once, "All those lines in my face getting clearer..."
--
% Randy Yates % "Ticket to the moon, flight leaves here today
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % from Satellite 2"
%%% 919-577-9882 % 'Ticket To The Moon'
%%%% % *Time*, Electric Light Orchestra
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr
  #57   Report Post  
Porky
 
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"Randy Yates" wrote in message
...
Bob and the rest of the group still reading this thread,

I can appreciate anyone who wants to see specifics, especially in a
controversial issue such as this. However, what keeps me from pursuing
this with you further is that I sense in you a higher desire to prove
yourself right than to find out the truth. For example, anytime
someone presents some equation or evidence, you knock it down by
invalidating the assumptions or other details that seem fairly
self-evident. Since, as I stated in another response in this thread
quite some time ago (to which I don't recall getting any responses),
ALL theories rest at some point on assumptions, this kind of dissipative
arguing can go on ad-infinitum.

The goal should be to find out the truth. I'm willing to admit I may
be wrong and examine other evidence. Can you?

I think the problem is that the basic assumptions that everyone has, are
just that, assumptions:
1) based on the original Doppler equation, which is for constant velocity,
and
2) based on the train/whistle analogy which simply does not hold up with the
speaker producing a complex soundwave.
The problem I see with item (1) is that a speaker's cone motion represents
a continuously varying velocity and direction, which is something not
covered directly by the Doppler equation, and in item (2), the train's
motion affects the whistle by moving it through space, but the whistle's
vibration in producing the sound source affects the train's motion not at
all in any practical way. This can be represented by a speaker with a peizo
transducer mounted at its apex, with the speaker driven by a LF tone, and
the peizo element being driven by a HF tone. The peizo transducer, being
solidly mounted to the cone, travels back and forth with it, but the peizo
element's vibration, its diaphragm being much, much lower in mass than the
cone affects the cone in so small a way as to be insignificant, and thus you
have a sound source riding on some other motion, so there will be Doppler
shift of the HF tone.
In the case of a speaker cone producing a complex soundwave, the LH
tone(s) and HF tone(s) not only affect each other, but are coupled tightly
together with no discernable coupling loss, thus producing, not a HF tone
riding on an LF tone (as is the case of the train and whistle), but a single
complex motion that results in the generation of a single complex soundwave
containing both (or all) frequencies, and thus not subject to Doppler
distortion in any normal sense.
In other words, if the LF is coupled to the HF, but the HF is not coupled
back to the LF, there will be Doppler shift in some form, but if both LF and
HF are solidly coupled in both directions the soundwave generaated is a
single coherent complex wave that isn't subject to Doppler shift in any
normal sense. The difference between the two is may seem small, but I think
it is critically important when considering Doppler distortion. Not being a
mathematician or physicist, I don't have the math background to produce the
necessary equations, but the mechanics are relatively simple so I can
visualize both models and see the differences, and I can assure you that
there are important differences in the two models.
If those with the above two assumptions will look at what makes them
think both assumptions apply to the speaker reproducing multiple
frequencies, and thoroughly analyze the two models I presented, I think
things may become a bit clearer for everyone.
I'm not postulating about pistons in closed or open chambers, I'm trying
to model real speakers in the real world.


  #58   Report Post  
Porky
 
Posts: n/a
Default


"Randy Yates" wrote in message
...
Bob Cain writes:
[...]
Does it sound like it yet? I've ordered a book that is said to prove
one of the axioms and Art Ludwig has consented to engage in the kind
of proof I think this deserves and to enter into discussion with me
about its specifics. That he wishes to continue our discussion
several weeks after it began should indicate that at least he sees a

p real desire in me to find and understand the truth as he obviously
does himself. However his in depth analysis turns out I admire him
greatly (and am very grateful) for his willingness to perform it in
public.


I agree - I appreciate what Art is doing as well.

OTOH, if all your criticism means is that I haven't agreed with you


Not at all, Bob. In fact, I get a charge out of seeing a false belief of
my own get overturned. Makes me realize the universe is even more wondrous
than I thought.

then perhaps a look in the mirror is appropriate.


As Aerosmith said in a song once, "All those lines in my face getting

clearer..."

"Isn't that the way everybody's got their dues in life to pay...."
We're paying our Doppler dues right now. :-) I've spent 'way too many
hours on this, but I can't quit 'til I know how it turns out. The bad part
is that I may provide some clues here and there, right or wrong, but unless
I want to go back to school for several more years, I won't be providing the
mathematical proof, and I very well may not be able to understand the
equations that show the proof. I'll just have to hope that folks are honest
enough to admit the truth when they see it and tell me what it all means....
*L*


  #59   Report Post  
Mark
 
Posts: n/a
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(The Ghost) wrote in message . com...
(Mark) wrote in message . com...


But consider a SPECIAL CASE, where the distance from Rx to Tx is such
that the prop delay equals an integer number of wavelengths of 50Hz,
then the cones will be in lock step at 50 Hz. So perhaps the correct
answer for this special 100% coupled tube case, is that the Doppler is
a critical function of the distance between the Rx and Tx.


It is not good to use imprecise non-technical terminology. In that
regard I am guilty of following your lead, but only because I thought
we were referring to the same thing. For Doppler shift not to exist,
the propagation delay needs to be zero. But zero time delay is not
the same as zero phase shfit. In the sinusoidal steady state, it is
not only possible but quite common for two waveforms to be in phase
even though there is a significant time delay between them. In order
to avoid the confusion, you should think of what is happening in terms
of transient signals such as a pulse or short tone burst instead of
sinusoidal steady state signals.


Ghost,
I think we agree on most points, but I disagree with you on this
particualr spcial case.

I belive Doppler exists whenever the distance between Rx and Tx is
changing.

But if the two cones are vibrating in phase (with zero phase shift) at
50 Hz, but not with zero time delay becasue they are seperated by a
fixed idstance, ( I do understand the distinction betwen zero time
delay and zero phast shift) then I belive in this special case, no
Doppler occurs because the distance form Tx to Rx is a constant even
though both are moving relative to the medium.

As an analogy, if there are two trains on the same track both moving
at 60 MPH in the same direction, does Doppler occur when one hears the
whistle of the other train. I don't think so.



Mark
  #60   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
Posts: n/a
Default



Randy Yates wrote:


Not at all, Bob. In fact, I get a charge out of seeing a false belief of
my own get overturned. Makes me realize the universe is even more wondrous
than I thought.


Believe it or not, I will get the same charge if my belief
on this can be overturned by solid theoretical proof. No
way do I think I know everything and if there proves to be a
gap in my understanding, I very much welcome it being filled.

Of course it is nothing like the charge I'm going to feel
when I'm ultimately proved correct. :-)


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein


  #61   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
Posts: n/a
Default

(Mark) wrote in message . com...
Ghost,
I think we agree on most points, but I disagree with you on this
particualr spcial case.
I belive Doppler exists whenever the distance between Rx and Tx is
changing.

But if the two cones are vibrating in phase (with zero phase shift) at
50 Hz, but not with zero time delay becasue they are seperated by a
fixed idstance, ( I do understand the distinction betwen zero time
delay and zero phast shift) then I belive in this special case, no
Doppler occurs because the distance form Tx to Rx is a constant even
though both are moving relative to the medium.

As an analogy, if there are two trains on the same track both moving
at 60 MPH in the same direction, does Doppler occur when one hears the
whistle of the other train. I don't think so.

Mark


Zero time delay means just that.....zero time delay and zero phase
shift. On the other hand zero phase shift occurs for finite time
delays each time the distance of the propagating wave increases by one
wavelength. For example, consider a loudspeaker radiating 1KHz in a
free field. If at some particular distance from the loudspeaker, the
phase shift is zero degrees relative to the electrical signal. The
phase shift will also be zero degrees for increased distances from the
loudspeaker of 1, 2, 3,..... wavelengths. So, even though you move
farther and farther away from the loudspeaker and increase the time
delay between transmitter and receiver, you can still find points in
space where the phase difference relative to the electrical signal is
zero degrees.
  #62   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
Posts: n/a
Default

Bob Cain wrote in message ...
The Ghost wrote:

Doppler mixing occurs if and only if the coupling from Tx to
Rx is frequency dependant. If it is independant, the
distance between Tx and Rx, so long as it is fixed, is
irrelevant. It won't happen with a piston in a terminated
tube.



And that is nothing more than another one of your nonsensical,
umsubstantiated beliefs.


Then it should be quite easy for you to formally refute it.
Have at it. Yeah, right. You're a washed up antisocial
who once, long ago, did some hearing research with someone
who actually was important but you've been isolated by your
sociopathy to where your rage is all you have left and it
simply reflects what you think you should have been but for
all the idiots. You can use tables to give the answers to
problems that have been solved by others but have no
understanding at all below that level. You also seem
incapable of learning.

If that's wrong, prove otherwise with an actual display of
any technical acumen. I can't figure out why you are even
on usenet. You have nothing whatsoever to contribute other
than insults that would get your head torn off with ****
down the remaining food pipe were you to deliver them face
to face. Probably why you're afraid to leave your room.

If you can show you actually know anything by giving a
logical proof of your theory with all axioms clearly stated
and available for challenge and all non-axiomatic formulae
dependant only on what has been already formally derived and
with all constants and variables given precise physical
meaning, I'll bow down before you. I can't see why such a
thing should even be a challenge to one such as yourself.

Or rage on, asshole, because that's all anyone expects from
you anyway.

Your "experiments" if you actually have performed any are
such kludges that nothing at all can be concluded from them.
They show an utter disregard for science, or more likely
no understanding of what science is.

I know one of your couple of sock puppets will step up to
defend you and tell us that they know you really are an
expert but that's pretty transparent by now.

Sorry to take the gloves off in front of everybody else but
I do feel a whole lot better after telling it like it is.

I took alt.sci.physics.acoustics off this because they are
all much too polite for such a reality check. You'll
probably re-post it there anyway looking for sympathy.


Bob



You are right, Bob. I am going to re-post it. I want to make sure
that everyone reading these newsgroups from now until the end of time
is fully aware of the sort of human being that Bob Cain really is.
  #63   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
Posts: n/a
Default

Bob Cain wrote in message ...

Valid and meaningful experiment always trumps theory. A
_valid_ experiment is one with acceptable measurement of
signal and in which no extraneous signal is admited or else
any extraneous signal can be exactly accounted for. The
experimenter is responsible for the proof of this. Peer
review is usually required for acceptance of the proof.


BULL CRAP. The experimenter is only responsible for reporting
honestly the measurement methodology that he used and the results that
he obtained. If other experimenters do not believe the results, it is
up to them to repeat the experiment, identify the purported error,
correct it and obtain and present the corrected result. Also, you
mindless jackass, peer review is only required for acceptance for
publication. It is quite common for opposing articles on
controvercial topics to be accepted for publication even though the
issue in dispute remains unresolved.

A _meaningful_ experiment is one that has been repeated with
the same results by an independant experimenter with
credentials and credibility among peers.


No. A meaningful experiment is one that yields the correct result.
And someone like yourself who is technically inept is not in a
postition to make that assessment.


If testing a theory, which is the usual use of experiment in
science, the parameter space of the theory must also be
sampled at more than one point, if it is possible to control
the parameters, and the results remain in agreement with
theory at all of them.


Just another one of your mindless, irrational assertions/diversions.
A valid demonstranted inconsistency between theory and experimental
result is all that is required to disprove a theory. However, a
valid, demonstrated agreement at one point in n-dimensional paramater
space does not require that a theory be rejected. It simply means is
that the theory is still viable and that it can not be dismissed
simply because jackasses like you refuse to accept it until/unless the
theory has been proven to be to be in agreement with all possible
variation in parameters.

I look forward very much to such an experimental test of
whatever predictive theory emerges from this discussion. I
would wish it were in the hands of one not so invested in a
particular result but that's what the requirement of
repeatability by a disinterested party is for.


More BULL CRAP. The theory is there, but you refuse to accept it.
Also, you are in serious need of a reality check. The way science
works is one group of scientists trying to to prove that their theory
is correct, or that the theory of another group of scientists is
incorrect. You are a naive and totally midnless idiot if you believe
that science progresses on a disinteressted-party basis.
  #64   Report Post  
Jim Carr
 
Posts: n/a
Default

"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...

No. A meaningful experiment is one that yields the correct result.


Knowing the correct results in advance sounds like good science to me!





  #65   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
Posts: n/a
Default



Jim Carr wrote:

"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...


No. A meaningful experiment is one that yields the correct result.



Knowing the correct results in advance sounds like good science to me!


What would even be better for that particular experimenter
is to make sure he doesn't know the answer first. OTOH, if
the results match well a theory that can be falsified then
all that need be known about the experimenter has been said.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein


  #66   Report Post  
Randy Yates
 
Posts: n/a
Default

"Jim Carr" writes:

"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...

No. A meaningful experiment is one that yields the correct result.


Knowing the correct results in advance sounds like good science to me!


This is pun, right?

An experiment's results are, by definition, correct.
You can't drop a ball from a roof and say, "That's incorrect - the ball
fell to the ground. It shouldn't have done that - it should have floated
to the sky. I must have the experiment wrong." It may perhaps be the case
that the experiment you perform tells you little or nothing about the
question(s) you are seeking to answer, but the experiment's outcome is
nevertheless never "incorrect."
--
% Randy Yates % "And all that I can do
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % is say I'm sorry,
%%% 919-577-9882 % that's the way it goes..."
%%%% % Getting To The Point', *Balance of Power*, ELO
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr
  #67   Report Post  
Jim Carr
 
Posts: n/a
Default

"Randy Yates" wrote in message
...
"Jim Carr" writes:

"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...

No. A meaningful experiment is one that yields the correct result.


Knowing the correct results in advance sounds like good science to me!


This is pun, right?


Actually, I was shooting for sarcasm.


  #68   Report Post  
Mark
 
Posts: n/a
Default

(The Ghost) wrote in message . com...
(Mark) wrote in message . com...
Ghost,
I think we agree on most points, but I disagree with you on this
particualr spcial case.
I belive Doppler exists whenever the distance between Rx and Tx is
changing.

But if the two cones are vibrating in phase (with zero phase shift) at
50 Hz, but not with zero time delay becasue they are seperated by a
fixed idstance, ( I do understand the distinction betwen zero time
delay and zero phast shift) then I belive in this special case, no
Doppler occurs because the distance form Tx to Rx is a constant even
though both are moving relative to the medium.

As an analogy, if there are two trains on the same track both moving
at 60 MPH in the same direction, does Doppler occur when one hears the
whistle of the other train. I don't think so.

Mark


Zero time delay means just that.....zero time delay and zero phase
shift. On the other hand zero phase shift occurs for finite time
delays each time the distance of the propagating wave increases by one
wavelength. For example, consider a loudspeaker radiating 1KHz in a
free field. If at some particular distance from the loudspeaker, the
phase shift is zero degrees relative to the electrical signal. The
phase shift will also be zero degrees for increased distances from the
loudspeaker of 1, 2, 3,..... wavelengths. So, even though you move
farther and farther away from the loudspeaker and increase the time
delay between transmitter and receiver, you can still find points in
space where the phase difference relative to the electrical signal is
zero degrees.


Yes I agree, and it is at these particular points of 0 phase shift
that you just described that the Tx cone and Rx cone are moving in
phase at 50Hz and therefore the distance between them is constant so
there is no Doppler effect.


Mark
  #69   Report Post  
Angelo Campanella
 
Posts: n/a
Default

Mark wrote:
Yes I agree, and it is at these particular points of 0 phase shift


etc.

PLEASE DO NOT CROSS POST INTO THIS ACOUSTICS GROUP, NOR CROSS POST FROM
THIS ACOUSTICS GROUP INTO OTHERS. LET'S KEEP FOCUSED ONLY ON ACOUSTICS.


ANGELO CAMPANELLA

  #70   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
Posts: n/a
Default



Mark wrote:


Yes I agree, and it is at these particular points of 0 phase shift
that you just described that the Tx cone and Rx cone are moving in
phase at 50Hz and therefore the distance between them is constant so
there is no Doppler effect.


Bingo. It can hardly be put more succinctly.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein


  #71   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
Posts: n/a
Default



Angelo Campanella wrote:

Mark wrote:

Yes I agree, and it is at these particular points of 0 phase shift



etc.

PLEASE DO NOT CROSS POST INTO THIS ACOUSTICS GROUP, NOR CROSS POST FROM
THIS ACOUSTICS GROUP INTO OTHERS. LET'S KEEP FOCUSED ONLY ON ACOUSTICS.


I DON'T UNDERSTAND WHY YOU DON'T CONSIDER THIS A MATTER OF
ACOUSTIC THEORY.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein
  #72   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
Posts: n/a
Default


Randy, in case you use it as a bit bucket and wouldn't know
this, I've sent you a brief email at the address you use for
these posts.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein
  #73   Report Post  
Randy Yates
 
Posts: n/a
Default

Bob Cain writes:

Mark wrote:


Yes I agree, and it is at these particular points of 0 phase shift
that you just described that the Tx cone and Rx cone are moving in
phase at 50Hz and therefore the distance between them is constant so
there is no Doppler effect.


Bingo. It can hardly be put more succinctly.


Bob,

Is this the essence of what you've been trying to say all along? I.e.,
that, when the frequency is low enough, no energy is coupled into
the wave, so that the low frequency movement occurs in the transmitter
but not the receiver, but then when the frequency is high enough for
energy to transfer, the receiver cone moves with the transmitter?

I kinda sorta see what you're saying, but something sounds funny
about this. Can't put my finger on it right now.
--
% Randy Yates % "Remember the good old 1980's, when
%% Fuquay-Varina, NC % things were so uncomplicated?"
%%% 919-577-9882 % 'Ticket To The Moon'
%%%% % *Time*, Electric Light Orchestra
http://home.earthlink.net/~yatescr
  #74   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
Posts: n/a
Default



Randy Yates wrote:

Bob Cain writes:


Mark wrote:



Yes I agree, and it is at these particular points of 0 phase shift
that you just described that the Tx cone and Rx cone are moving in
phase at 50Hz and therefore the distance between them is constant so
there is no Doppler effect.


Bingo. It can hardly be put more succinctly.



Bob,

Is this the essence of what you've been trying to say all along? I.e.,
that, when the frequency is low enough, no energy is coupled into
the wave, so that the low frequency movement occurs in the transmitter
but not the receiver, but then when the frequency is high enough for
energy to transfer, the receiver cone moves with the transmitter?


No, but rather that for a Piston In A Tube you could
substitute any frequency for 50 Hz and Mark's statement
would be true. For the PIAT case, as you know, I think I've
found what will be a very simple proof that no Doppler
mixing will occur and that the Rx gets exactly what the Tx
sends based on one axiom that is at Art's site and Fourier
theory. You can't get down to many fewer first principles
than that. For anyone who wants to anticipate that proof,
the axiom is equation (1) at:

http://www.silcom.com/~aludwig/Physi...collisions.htm

I doubt anyone could find a hole if I were to just verbally
state it but I want to do better than that and it shouldn't
be very difficult except for one as rusty at proof as I am.

What you said is very close for systems other than the PIAT,
such as a speaker swinging on a rope or a speaker on a train
or ultimately for the speaker in a stationary cabinet. It
is the frequency dependant decoupling of motion of the Tx to
the Rx that causes Doppler mixing.


I kinda sorta see what you're saying, but something sounds funny
about this. Can't put my finger on it right now.


I know you will be trying. :-) Thanks very much, at the
very least, for giving it consideration. Getting just that
much for these ideas has proven incredibly difficult.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein
  #75   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
Posts: n/a
Default



Bob Cain wrote:


No, but rather that for a Piston In A Tube you could substitute any


That should have said, "Yes, and that for a Piston In A
Tube...".

And when I said you are "very close", I should have said you
are "spot on".


Sorry,

Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein


  #76   Report Post  
Porky
 
Posts: n/a
Default


"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...
(Mark) wrote in message

. com...
Ghost,
I think we agree on most points, but I disagree with you on this
particualr spcial case.
I belive Doppler exists whenever the distance between Rx and Tx is
changing.

But if the two cones are vibrating in phase (with zero phase shift) at
50 Hz, but not with zero time delay becasue they are seperated by a
fixed idstance, ( I do understand the distinction betwen zero time
delay and zero phast shift) then I belive in this special case, no
Doppler occurs because the distance form Tx to Rx is a constant even
though both are moving relative to the medium.

As an analogy, if there are two trains on the same track both moving
at 60 MPH in the same direction, does Doppler occur when one hears the
whistle of the other train. I don't think so.

Mark


Zero time delay means just that.....zero time delay and zero phase
shift. On the other hand zero phase shift occurs for finite time
delays each time the distance of the propagating wave increases by one
wavelength. For example, consider a loudspeaker radiating 1KHz in a
free field. If at some particular distance from the loudspeaker, the
phase shift is zero degrees relative to the electrical signal. The
phase shift will also be zero degrees for increased distances from the
loudspeaker of 1, 2, 3,..... wavelengths. So, even though you move
farther and farther away from the loudspeaker and increase the time
delay between transmitter and receiver, you can still find points in
space where the phase difference relative to the electrical signal is
zero degrees.


Quite true, but the time delay will increase by the duration of the
particular wave cycle with each wavelength distance from the signal. In the
case of a 1 KHz sine wave, this would be an increase of one millisecond in
time delay between the electrical wave and the acoustic wave for roughly
every foot of distance between the source and the listener. I'm not sure I
see any particular relevance in the phase relationship between the
electrical and acoustical waves except in the case of sound reinforcement
where feedback or source/reinforcement interference might be a problem.


  #77   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
Posts: n/a
Default

"Jim Carr" wrote in message news:ndwYc.62149$yh.14812@fed1read05...
"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...

No. A meaningful experiment is one that yields the correct result.


Knowing the correct results in advance sounds like good science to me!


Who said anything about knowing the correct result in advance, you
****ing moron. Read some science history, asshole!
  #78   Report Post  
Jim Carr
 
Posts: n/a
Default

"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...
"Jim Carr" wrote in message

news:ndwYc.62149$yh.14812@fed1read05...
"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...

No. A meaningful experiment is one that yields the correct result.


Knowing the correct results in advance sounds like good science to me!


Who said anything about knowing the correct result in advance, you
****ing moron. Read some science history, asshole!


LOL! Do you kiss your mother with a mouth like that?


  #79   Report Post  
Bob Cain
 
Posts: n/a
Default



Jim Carr wrote:

Who said anything about knowing the correct result in advance, you
****ing moron. Read some science history, asshole!



LOL! Do you kiss your mother with a mouth like that?


His mother isn't allowed in his room and he's afraid to
leave it because of talking **** to so many people and
reaching out to touch them in such kind ways as calling the
CEO of the company that they work for over personal matters
or clipping bits of usenets posts without context to email
to someone in order to poison a conversation in progress.
He really does have good reason to be paranoid and he keeps
multiplying them. A real class act but he knows no
acoustics or physics so he can be pretty safely ignored.


Bob
--

"Things should be described as simply as possible, but no
simpler."

A. Einstein
  #80   Report Post  
The Ghost
 
Posts: n/a
Default

"Jim Carr" wrote in message news:p0Q_c.75103$yh.51210@fed1read05...
"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...
"Jim Carr" wrote in message

news:ndwYc.62149$yh.14812@fed1read05...
"The Ghost" wrote in message
om...

No. A meaningful experiment is one that yields the correct result.

Knowing the correct results in advance sounds like good science to me!


Who said anything about knowing the correct result in advance, you
****ing moron. Read some science history, asshole!


LOL! Do you kiss your mother with a mouth like that?


No, but I wouldn't be surprised if I have unknowingly kissed both your
wife and your daughter.
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