Home |
Search |
Today's Posts |
#322
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
Michael Scarpitti wrote:
chung wrote in message news:YYJsc.21691$hi6.2247943@attbi_s53... 'Objective' must also be 'relevant'. That's wrong, plain and simple. Besides, who decides the relevancy? Are you saying that all audio measurements are not relevant? We cannot be sure which, if any, relate to sonic character... You do not have to be sure about whether a measurement is relevant or not to call it objective. Example: frequency response of an amplifier. It is objective, regardless of whether you believe it is relevant for *you* or not. |
#323
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
S888Wheel wrote:
From: chung Date: 5/25/2004 5:14 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: Bromo wrote: On 5/24/04 9:34 PM, in article Loxsc.38298$zw.20454@attbi_s01, "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote: Of course, they could say, any 'competent' wine must have a specific gravity between x and y. Quite so, as one might say that any competent amplifier should have THD below 0.1%. Except that many people prefer a THD of the right H to be 1% or more - colorations and all. So some people prefer incompetent amps. What else is new? And with the wrong H, a 0.1% may sound grainy and nasty. So to declare that a 0.1% might just be a subjective judgement. Note that he said any competent amp should have THD below 0.1%. He did not say that all amps with 0.1% THD will be competent. Competence is in the eye of the designer. If the amp does what the designer set out for that amp to do the amp and it's designer are competent. If that's the case, then nothing can ever be incompetent. After all, the designer, or maybe the designer's mother/wife/partner, probably thinks that the product is competent. According to your logic, even snake-oil products are not incompetent, since the designer may very well intend the product to be snake-oil. So much for objectivists respecting preferences. So you are assuming I'm an objectivist? You are perfectly welcome to prefer incompetent equipment. I perfectly respect your preference. That does not detract from the fact that there are incompetent products preferred by someone. A claim of incompetence is about as disrespectful as it can get. It's disrespectful of the designer or the company producing such product. But if you feel that disrespect transfers to the one preferring such product, you are free to feel that way, although the intent is not necessarily so. |
#324
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
From: chung
Date: 5/26/2004 7:25 AM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: yN1tc.63485$gr.6218639@attbi_s52 S888Wheel wrote: From: chung Date: 5/25/2004 5:14 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: Bromo wrote: On 5/24/04 9:34 PM, in article Loxsc.38298$zw.20454@attbi_s01, "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote: Of course, they could say, any 'competent' wine must have a specific gravity between x and y. Quite so, as one might say that any competent amplifier should have THD below 0.1%. Except that many people prefer a THD of the right H to be 1% or more - colorations and all. So some people prefer incompetent amps. What else is new? And with the wrong H, a 0.1% may sound grainy and nasty. So to declare that a 0.1% might just be a subjective judgement. Note that he said any competent amp should have THD below 0.1%. He did not say that all amps with 0.1% THD will be competent. Competence is in the eye of the designer. If the amp does what the designer set out for that amp to do the amp and it's designer are competent. If that's the case, then nothing can ever be incompetent. Completely wrong. If an engineer designs a dam and it breaks and floods the town due to design flaws that is an incompetently designed dam. After all, the designer, or maybe the designer's mother/wife/partner, probably thinks that the product is competent. That is not the issue and it is not what I said regarding competency. Competency can be judged by the success of the design as measured against the goals of a designer. It has nothing to do with friends and family thinking a designer is great despite the success or failure of his or her designs. According to your logic, even snake-oil products are not incompetent, since the designer may very well intend the product to be snake-oil. Indeed snake oil that successfully milks people out of their money is not incompetent it is simply dishonest. The incompetence lies with those who bought the snake oil. So much for objectivists respecting preferences. So you are assuming I'm an objectivist? No, you have said as much. You are perfectly welcome to prefer incompetent equipment. I perfectly respect your preference. Clearly you don't if you do not see the disrespect inherent in the label "incompetent." That does not detract from the fact that there are incompetent products preferred by someone. There may very well be incompetent products that are prefered by some consumers. Many products suffer from mechanical failures due to incompetent engineering and workmanship and yet are still favored by some consumers. many products fail to actually meet the design goals and are still favored by some consumers. You can see many examples of both throughout the history of the automobile. BUT, if the product does what the designer sets out for the design to do there is no incompetence. To call a designer's deliberate and effective choices incompetent because you do not agree with his or her goals is disrespectful. Plain and simple. A claim of incompetence is about as disrespectful as it can get. It's disrespectful of the designer or the company producing such product. But if you feel that disrespect transfers to the one preferring such product, you are free to feel that way, although the intent is not necessarily so. |
#325
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
On 5/26/04 10:25 AM, in article yN1tc.63485$gr.6218639@attbi_s52, "chung"
wrote: So much for objectivists respecting preferences. So you are assuming I'm an objectivist? You are perfectly welcome to prefer incompetent equipment. I perfectly respect your preference. That does not detract from the fact that there are incompetent products preferred by someone. "incompetent" is a subjective judgement. It is NOT data based or objective in character. |
#326
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Scott Wheeler wrote:
From: Chung Date: 5/25/2004 5:46 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: S888Wheel wrote: From: chung Date: 5/20/2004 3:55 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: Bruce J. Richman wrote: The "controlled listening tests" obviously involve the listeners determining whether the DUT's sound the same or different. This is a form of measurement, although on a dichotomous basis rather than an interval scale. Every data point recorded in an ABX test or even in a more simple A/B comparison is obviously a measurement of the observer's ability to differentiate or not differentiate between the the 2 components being evaluated. That's got to be one of the most convoluted explanations (should I say excuses?) I have ever seen. So when you listen to two pieces of equipment, A and B, and you decide A is better, have you made a measurement? According to your definition, you have, since the fact that you prefer A over B is obviously a measurement of your ability to differentiate between A and B. Seems to me that you, being a subjectivist, based on selections/preferences on measurements, too! You're sure you're not an objectivist? Sure it's a measurement. It is however a subjective measurement. Kind of like a four star movie. Would anyone else say that whether you decide a movie is a 3 star or 4 star movie constitutes a measurement? People say all kinds of things. I asked my wife if I decide a movie is a four star movie is that a measurement of the quality of that movie. She said yes. Other opinions may vary. How is your definition of a star going to be the same as someone else's? The definition is pretty standard. It is a four tier scale of excellence. But it is a subjective measurement so not all movies will get the same number of stars from different people. How about deciding whether you like vanilla or chocolate ice-cream. Is that a measurement also? Sure it's a measure of favor. Again it is subjective. Or whether you like tube amps or transistor amp. Is that a measurement also?I believe that even Mr, Bromo said that measurements are objective. Nobody is disputing the fact that *some* measurements afre objective in the sense that they are performed with instrumentation in which the results can be replicated. I see nothing in Bromo's or Scoitt Wheeler's comments to indicate that they, or other subjectivists for that matter, believe that *all* measurements are objective. This would appear to be a strawman erected by some objectivists that don't agree. Here is what a dictionary says. Measu 5 : to estimate or appraise by a criterion measures his skill against his rival An appraisal is a measurement. It is subjective and it fits all of your questions above. You won't find the four stars on any test bench will you? That's why calling a movie 4-star is not a measurement. The dictionary online agrees with me not you. Or would you say that it isn't an apraisal either? The online dictionary sees them as synonymous. I also noted that you sneaked in another strawman, that measurements require a bench. Really? I said it "required" a bench? No. I said some measurements ( the quality of a movie in this case) won't be found on a bench so obviously I was saying just the opposite. There has been a disturbing trend in this thread for subjectivists to be continuously misrepresented by a few objectivists. Here is yet another example of a person's comments being misrepresented to facilitate an argument against them. Unfortunately, both Marcus and Pinkerton have engaqed in the same behavior in my view re. various things they *allege* that I've said, but can not prove in any way. Mr. Chung's allegation that I've said only ABX tests are measurements is also false. If you use an ohm meter to measure the resistance of a cable, that's a measurement. You can do this in your living room. Trust me! I do. Heck you can measure your thumb with a ruler. You can measure time with a clock. The list is quite long. I have no idea how you concluded anything I said suggested I was claiming "measurements require a bench." You might not have a concensus either. Further proof that giving stars is not a measurement. Wrong, according to the dictionary. But yes, subjective evaluations are a subjective and personal measurement. Hmmm, subjective and personal measurement. That's the oxymoron of the month. I suppose if you limit the idea of measurement to only objective measurements. The English language places no such limmit on the use of the word. Well, if every subjective, perceived, listening session is a measurement, then subjectivists based their preferences solely on measurements, then. OK by me! Who ever said *every* listening session was a measurement? I would say every audition is, at least if one is paying attention. PS: Also noticed that you disagreed with MR. Richman, since Mr. Richman has not changed his tune: only ABX test are measurements according to him. That is obviously a pretty gross misrepresentation of his beliefs. Agreed. It is also not only a gross misrepresentation of my opinions, as stated in this thread, but also what appears to be deliberate attempt to misrepresent my identity. Note Mr. Chung's initial CAPITALIZATION of my title, which he erroneously cites. While I'd like to think this was just a typographical error, the derogatory tone of many of his comments about my posts suggests that this was not the case. I guess the idea of speaking for yourself and not others wsn't appealing? I remember when the moderators didn't like that sort of thing. I would suggest they consider clamping down on it. There is nothing constructive about it IMO. Agreed. The moderators should not prevent posters from correcting statements made by others that are explicitly contradicted by what a poster has actually written. Allowing certain posters to continuously make statements about others which are not supported by the Google record, while simultaneously preventing others from doing so - with the same frequency - is unfair. Better still, as Mr. Wheeler suggests (and he can correct me if I'm wrong), a moderator's decision should at some point be made to NOT permit any more posts within a given thread when/after it has degenerated into those opposed to a given poster's views resorting to fraudulent misrepresentatios of what the poster has actually said. Bruce J. Richman |
#327
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
S888Wheel wrote:
From: chung Date: 5/21/2004 9:17 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: S888Wheel wrote: Of course these definintions of subjectivist positions were defined by a self-proclaimed objectivist. You know it is rarely flatering when an objectivist speaks for a subjectivist or visa versa. So, given that you frequent this newsgroup, is there anything in Self's definition you deem inaccurate? Yes. At least for me each one is either inaccurate or skewed to imply a misleading meaning. Herein lies the problem. You are assuming that you are the typical subjectivist. No, I am assuming nothing. I chose to speak strictly for myself as a subjectivist. The fact that you find those descriptions not accurate in your case simply means that you are less of a subjectivist than you might think. I am every bit the subjectivist that *I* think *I* am. Yes, thanks for confirming what I said: the subjectivist *you* think *you* are. Which could be very different from those who hang out in the cable forums at AA, for example. Or those who do not believe in controlled-bias testing. (In fact, I believe that the typical subjectivist does not believe in controlled-bias testing.) Or those who believe in cable lifters and magic pens. I guess this idea of mine that people should speak for their own thoughts and beliefs just isn't going over very well with you. Why do you say that? I was simply trying to correct your logical oversight of believing that every subjectivist is like you. " Welcome to the light side; no doubt this newsgroup has helped you make the transition ." OK fine. My tube electronics and turntable are still my weapons of choice based on listening despite what the measurements may or may not say. That's funny. Didn't you just say, in another message dated 5/21, that subjective evaluations are subjective and personal measurements? Now you are implying that subjective measurements are not measurements. Lets take the first one. IMO if one amplifier measures with less distortion than another but the amp with higher distortion sounds better in a given system then the one that sounds better is the prefered amp. The implication though is that the subjectivist disregard the measurements all together. And you don't agree that that's what subjectivists would do? No. I think when a subjectivist such as myself prefers one piece of equipment over another even when some objectivists insist the specs prove that choice to be inferior, I, as a subjectivist, opt for what my ears tell me rather than what the specs tell me for my personal use. Specs or measurements? I don't suggest that specs be ignored by designers and researchers though. Well, Doug Self did not suggest that subjectivists do that. I don't suggest they be "dismissed." Ah, you just said that you would dismiss them if your ears disagree, which was what Self said subjectivists do. I don't know any other subjectivists that have said that specs should be dismissed thus. "Thus" is your qualification. You do not understand Doug's Self's qualification, it would seem. There may very well be such people but not *all* subjectivists or any I personally know have expressed this belief to me. Well, as Doug Self implied, specs/measurements that *agree* with subjective impressions will not be dismissed. Have you seen the measurements of SET's? No I haven't but I have heard stories about them. You think subjectivists pay any attention to cable measurements? I cannot speak for all subjectivists. Thanks for conceding my point! Cable measurements don't seem to come up so much. Because the amazing similarities in measurements between cables, I guess. When it comes to cables, it's all subjective. Wait, you said that subjective listening tests are subjective measurements in another thread, though. Hmmm, maybe you should say, for consistency, that only "objective" measurements don't come up. And that "subjective measurements" come up all the time. I suspect that most are not aware of them. I never looked into it. That does not mean that all subjectivists dismiss all specs of all components though. Strawman. No one said that. Well, I hope the designers are paying attention to the relevant measurements and how they relate to sonic impressions and moving forward with their designs from there. But as it stands it is a misleading statement about subjectivists. Why? It may not be an accurate statement *in your case*, but it is dangerous to set yourself up as the prototype subjectivist. I'm not setiing myself up as anything. You still haven't apparently got the message that "subjectivists" are a wdely diversified group of audiophiles with many different beliefs on many different audio related subjects. When you get past the all subjectivists are the same (irony alert) assumption you will possibly better understand that I am speaking for myself as a subjectivist and that is a wise choice. And you still have not got it that Doug Self's descriptions is not intended to describe you only. He was describing the general behavior of subjectivists. Although in carefully reading what you said, he actually describes you pretty well. I have not read anything from you dismissing the validity of controlled testing, or stating that you could not function as a listener once you have to choose between A and B, so you are not as far out there as the others . I probably am less extreme than many subjectivists. Thanks for conceding my point, again! It would be just as misleading to say that objectivists will prefer equipment based on measurements despite how it might *actually* sound. It is misleading because many of the objectivists on this newsgroup have stated otherwise, ad nauseum. Than consider learning from my example and avoid making such prejudicial claims about an entire group of people with diverse opinions. I was bringing someone's attention to Doug Self's description, if you have not noticed. I tend to agree to a large degree with his description. I didn't notice that he was making prejudicial claims. Perhaps you should also address this directly to Mr. Bromo, who started this sub-thread by making prejudicial claims about an entire group? I think the truth is that objectivists are more interested in the measurements than the subjectivists but that does not mean that measurments are being dismissed all together. Self did not say that. Self said that when listening impressions disagree with measurements, the latter can be discarded by subjectivists. I knew which measurements we were talking about. Dismissed is still dismissed. He did say "dismiss." You left out the important qualifier: "dismissed when they do not agree with subjective opinion". If the measurements agree with their listening impressions, then I'm sure that those are *not* dismissed. The second point. First off I'm not sure what is meant by "engineering science." Well, electrical engineering, mechanical engineering and science would be the popular answer. I think it wise to keep them seperate. I have seen many branches of science, Physics, Biology, etc. I have never seen a branch called engineering science. Maybe I missed something? Yes, you did. There are even majors in colleges called engineering science, or engineering physics. Harvard has such a major: http://www.deas.harvard.edu/undergradstudy/ The fact that you do not know a term does not mean that that term is not commonly used or understood. To a lot of people, it is extremely clear what engineering sciences mean. Mr. Self cannot be any clearer. But I do believe there is nothing magical about audio and that all parameters of audio that can be heard can also be measured. See, you may not be the typical subjectivist then. Or, maybe, you don't really know what many subjectivists are thinking. You probably have noticed that I have been on debates with self-proclaimed subjectivits a lot here. I'm sure you have seen posts and posts about how imaging cannot be measured. I have seen many claiming the right things *aren't* being measured. I have seen a few claiming they *can't* be measured. You really ought to consider the diversity of opinions amoung subjectivists. as for the third point, it simply does not apply to me at all. So you are again saying that you are less of a subjectivist than others. No, you are simply trying to stereotype a diverse group of people. I still rely on the old ears for my evaluations. Non-sequitur, since we all do. I know my limitations when it comes to technology and I know better than to ascribe hypothetical cause and effects to various designs of audio components. My hypothesis of any cause and effect are usually born of trial and error while carefully allowing one variable in my trials. Some subjectivists' hypothesis is simply what they are told by boutique companies. Witness cable burn-in, and CD magic pen. You said some, Maybe you are getting it. That is good. Yes some people buy whatever line they are fed by those they look up to. I think that goes both ways. How many objectivists are really doing thier own extensive bias controled testing and how many are accepting what has been reported by other objectivists at face value? I'm confident there are plenty of both. Here is something that was said about all objectivists in a Stereophile article: "For an objectivist, the musical experience begins with the compression and rarefaction of the local atmosphere by a musical instrument and ends with the decay of hydraulic pressure waves in the listener's cochlea; " Have you met an objectivist that behaves in such a way? I have interacted with some that at first blush seemed to but upon further converstation did not. OK, so we all agree that the definition does not merit further debate. There was never any debate. I presented it as an example of a subjectivist misrepresenting objectivists. Which happens a lot, obviously. In fact, that was the reason why I responded to Mr. Bromo's post a while back. Interesting you did not respond to Mr. Bromo's first post. My point was that the misrepresentations go in both directions. I guess you agree that this was one of those misrepresentations of an objectivist by a subjectivist. I don't know and you don't know that this author has never meat an objectivist who actually meets this description. the real problem is with the single universal description for a broad group of people with diverse opinions. So there are various shades of subjectivism. But by and large Doug Self did a good job summarizing it. We disagree. |
#328
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
|
#329
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
|
#331
|
|||
|
|||
Does anyone know of this challenge?
On 5/25/04 10:03 PM, in article aWSsc.25971$af3.1355739@attbi_s51, "Jacob
Kramer" wrote: Bromo wrote in message news:rHSic.32839$_L6.1818930@attbi_s53... I recall reading a review in Absolute Sound where they compared a bunch of amps ranging from $2k (Rotel) to about $6K - and their only comment was that at normal listening levels, any of the amps would be easy to live with - and the only differences were heard at a high level of drive. Well I recall reading many, many reviews in which amps are compared according to soundstage, musicality, bass response, speed, openness, and many other characteristics, none of which can be corrected by equalization or which appear only at the power extremes. If such qualities are in fact comparable then they should be plainly obvious when both amps are driving the same speakers well within their performance specs. If they're not obvious, it means the reviews are overblown. The DID compare all of that - but went on to talk about how the differences were only heard at high levels and that listening to the "laggard" amp - they did comment that it would be totally acceptable at normal volumes. I figure that a bright chap may be able to measure the stereo image of speakers being driven by different amps - since depending upon source - like Vinyl, CD and MP3 being played through speakers - I have noticed differences in the stereo imaging - I figure that it could be measurable if someone cared to do so. |
#332
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
Mike Scarpitti wrote:
chung wrote in message news:YYJsc.21691$hi6.2247943@attbi_s53... 'Objective' must also be 'relevant'. That's wrong, plain and simple. Besides, who decides the relevancy? Are you saying that all audio measurements are not relevant? We cannot be sure which, if any, relate to sonic character... Why not? I recently, for example, read a review in which the writer claimed that one CD player "handled the frequency extremes and was more extended" than another CD player he had for reference. There were no measurements presented to support this claim, so I assume he was making this claim based on his own *unique* listening impressions. Now, would not a reasonable reader expect that if this claim were valid, there should be some frequency response curves at given listening levels that would illustrate this alleged discrepancy between the 2 CD players? It would be harder, probably, to correlate specific measurements with other, more nebulous descriptive terms that are open to interpretation. Bruce J. Richman |
#333
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Bromo wrote:
On 5/25/04 8:14 PM, in article , "chung" wrote: Except that many people prefer a THD of the right H to be 1% or more - colorations and all. So some people prefer incompetent amps. What else is new? "competent" and "incompetent" are subjective judgments. I perfectly understand that what I find competent someone may find extremely competent. That's why someone else owns such products. "Amps with audible distortions are desirable by some people but not me" would be a proper more objective and accurate statement. I don't see any conflict between what you said and what I said. The point I was refuting was that you were assuming that just because someone prefers such products, then such products cannot be called incompetent. Example: someone really believe in magic pens. That someone probably thinks the magic pens are very competent products. Now does that mean that everyone else will agree that they are competent? And do you also think that magic pens are competent products? As an RF engineer, do you think that amps with audible distortion are competent? As an RF engineer, do you want an amp that always adds audible distortion to all types of music? Do you believe that adding audible distortion brings it any closer to high-fidelity? The funny thing is, that 1% THD may be preferable sounding if it is low order and even harmonic dominated than a lower THD that is higher order and odd harmonic dominated. Having said that - you might think the more competent amp would be the one with less than 1%, but in reality most people would prefer the 1% one if the harmonics add pleasant sounding colorations. Again, people may prefer incompetent amps, so what else is new? The problem with mixing judgements like you have with objective measurements, is that you end up removing the objective measurements by substituting a declaration for careful analysis. Not sure what you meant by that. You totally lost me there. I thought I said something that is very straightforward: that someone likes something does not mean that the something cannot be incompetently designed, especially in high-end audio. Example: Dick Pierce mentioned some high-end DAC's that were poorly designed, with the output jitter being a strong function of output loads, etc. That's an incompetent product. It was also a product that was claimed to be extraordinarily revealing by high-end reviews and users. Does the fact that the DAC got great reviews mean that we cannot call it incompetent? And with the wrong H, a 0.1% may sound grainy and nasty. So to declare that a 0.1% might just be a subjective judgement. Note that he said any competent amp should have THD below 0.1%. He did not say that all amps with 0.1% THD will be competent. Point taken. It was a fair assumption to think that he thought it was both necessary and sufficient to have a THD 0.1%. Perhaps it is just necessary. Would be nice to have a definition (objectivist) of what a competent amp might be... |
#334
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Bromo wrote:
On 5/25/04 8:14 PM, in article , "chung" wrote: Except that many people prefer a THD of the right H to be 1% or more - colorations and all. So some people prefer incompetent amps. What else is new? "competent" and "incompetent" are subjective judgments.* Yes and no. There is an engineering ideal for what an amplifier is supposed to do: It is supposed to amplify the signal without otherwise distorting it in any way. No such perfect amplifier exists. A competent audio amplifier is one whose distortions fall below the threshold of audibility (as determined by DBTs, of course). That's an objective standard. (But please note that it's not a universal one: An amp may be competent to drive one speaker but not another.) But there is a subjective side to this, because when objectivists use the term "competent" there is often a value judgment attached. Many objectivists believe that the best way to put together an audio system is to seek out a competent amp and neutral wires, so that the speakers alone determine the sonic character of the system. But that's not the only way to put together an audio system. Many listeners may prefer the sound of a system that includes an amplifier with a definite sonic signature (e.g., "that tube sound"), and there is nothing wrong with that, even if it doesn't meet the engineering definition of competent. So competence itself is an objective standard. But whether you prefer a competent amp or not is a subjective judgment. "Amps with audible distortions are desirable by some people but not me" would be a proper more objective and accurate statement. The funny thing is, that 1% THD may be preferable sounding if it is low order and even harmonic dominated than a lower THD that is higher order and odd harmonic dominated. Having said that - you might think the more competent amp would be the one with less than 1%, but in reality most people would prefer the 1% one if the harmonics add pleasant sounding colorations. Really? Most People? You have studies that show this? The problem with mixing judgements like you have with objective measurements, is that you end up removing the objective measurements by substituting a declaration for careful analysis. * And with the wrong H, a 0.1% may sound grainy and nasty.* So to declare that a 0.1% might just be a subjective judgement. Note that he said any competent amp should have THD below 0.1%. He did not say that all amps with 0.1% THD will be competent. Point taken.* It was a fair assumption to think that he thought it was both necessary and sufficient to have a THD 0.1%.* Perhaps it is just necessary. I think he has since suggested that the necessary condition for THD may be 0.5%. Would be nice to have a definition (objectivist) of what a competent amp might be... See above. bob __________________________________________________ _______________ Stop worrying about overloading your inbox - get MSN Hotmail Extra Storage! http://join.msn.click-url.com/go/onm...ave/direct/01/ |
#335
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Michael Scarpitti wrote:
Stewart Pinkerton wrote in message news:lYJsc.58094$gr.5702314@attbi_s52... On Tue, 25 May 2004 01:56:07 GMT, Bromo wrote: Except that many people prefer a THD of the right H to be 1% or more - colorations and all. Indeed they do - but the amplifier is still fundamentally incompetent as a high fidelity device. That is false on its face. If MOST auditors prefer the sound of colored amplification, then THAT is 'high fidelity' to the ideal. Please, words do have real meanings. "High fidelity" does not mean, "most people like it." It means, high correspondence to the source, in this case the recording. And as it's quite trivial to design an amp with less than 1% THD, amps with higher THD than that hardly qualify as "high fidelity." (Note: I'm not arguing that THD is the only determinant of fidelity, by any means. But it is one of them.) That doesn't mean that people can't like amps with high THD, which I think was your real point, as well as Bromo's. Creating an amplifier that SOUNDS perfect may be harder than to produce one that MEASURES perfect. All empirical evidence suggests that no amp measures perfect, but many are audibly indistinguishable from perfect. bob __________________________________________________ _______________ Is your PC infected? Get a FREE online computer virus scan from McAfee® Security. http://clinic.mcafee.com/clinic/ibuy...n.asp?cid=3963 |
#336
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
S888Wheel wrote:
From: chung Date: 5/26/2004 7:25 AM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: yN1tc.63485$gr.6218639@attbi_s52 S888Wheel wrote: From: chung Date: 5/25/2004 5:14 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: Bromo wrote: On 5/24/04 9:34 PM, in article Loxsc.38298$zw.20454@attbi_s01, "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote: Of course, they could say, any 'competent' wine must have a specific gravity between x and y. Quite so, as one might say that any competent amplifier should have THD below 0.1%. Except that many people prefer a THD of the right H to be 1% or more - colorations and all. So some people prefer incompetent amps. What else is new? And with the wrong H, a 0.1% may sound grainy and nasty. So to declare that a 0.1% might just be a subjective judgement. Note that he said any competent amp should have THD below 0.1%. He did not say that all amps with 0.1% THD will be competent. Competence is in the eye of the designer. If the amp does what the designer set out for that amp to do the amp and it's designer are competent. If that's the case, then nothing can ever be incompetent. Completely wrong. If an engineer designs a dam and it breaks and floods the town due to design flaws that is an incompetently designed dam. Perhaps I should say very few things in audio can ever be incompetent. I was referring to audio. After all, the designer, or maybe the designer's mother/wife/partner, probably thinks that the product is competent. That is not the issue and it is not what I said regarding competency. Competency can be judged by the success of the design as measured against the goals of a designer. It has nothing to do with friends and family thinking a designer is great despite the success or failure of his or her designs. That's *your* defintion of competency. After all you said competence is in the eye of the designer, a statement that few would agree. And how would you know what the goals of the design were? In the case of the amp, if the amp designer really wants to get 0.1% THD and only achieves 1%, is the amp competent? The answer is no. It is still incompetent if he later changes the goal to be 1% to fit his design, because other products routinely achieve much lower distortion. According to your logic, even snake-oil products are not incompetent, since the designer may very well intend the product to be snake-oil. Indeed snake oil that successfully milks people out of their money is not incompetent it is simply dishonest. The incompetence lies with those who bought the snake oil. Gee, now I really sense disrespect for preferences! You never can tell what other design goals the designer of such product has, in addition to milking people out of theor money. Even according to your defintion, snake oil products are incompetent because the designer may really want the product to work as claimed, but just fails. So much for objectivists respecting preferences. So you are assuming I'm an objectivist? No, you have said as much. Please provide quote. You are perfectly welcome to prefer incompetent equipment. I perfectly respect your preference. Clearly you don't if you do not see the disrespect inherent in the label "incompetent." Clearly the disrespect is meant for the product, and not necessarily the user. That does not detract from the fact that there are incompetent products preferred by someone. There may very well be incompetent products that are prefered by some consumers. So after all this, you are agreeing with what I said in the firsrt place? I can't believe this... Many products suffer from mechanical failures due to incompetent engineering and workmanship and yet are still favored by some consumers. many products fail to actually meet the design goals and are still favored by some consumers. You can see many examples of both throughout the history of the automobile. BUT, if the product does what the designer sets out for the design to do there is no incompetence. To call a designer's deliberate and effective choices incompetent because you do not agree with his or her goals is disrespectful. Plain and simple. Ahh, so you finally see that the disrespect is for the product, and not for the one who owns it necessarily. We're making progress. Yes, I believe that anyone who sets out to design incpmpetent products to milk money out of unsuspecting customers deserve disrespect. Of course, that does not mean that someone will not give them a lot of respect. Such is marketing. A claim of incompetence is about as disrespectful as it can get. It's disrespectful of the designer or the company producing such product. But if you feel that disrespect transfers to the one preferring such product, you are free to feel that way, although the intent is not necessarily so. |
#337
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
On 5/26/04 10:22 AM, in article YK1tc.4335$Ly.4238@attbi_s01, "Stewart
Pinkerton" wrote: I would agree with that - but if the music you listen to has a dynamic range of 20dB - that would imply to have grainless sound you would at least need to be 65dB down from the peak. Not at all, as the distortion artifacts will of course track the signal, so as long as they are 45dB below the signal level at any time, they should be inaudible. You are making my point perfectly. If I listen to music with loud and quiet passages - such as some orchestral pieces - I might be at 0dB (peak) or -20dB. If my noise floor is at -45dB then it will be audible in quieter passages. If I account for that in my design - I would make my noise floor AT LEAST -65dB if -20dB is as quiet as it gets. As CD would theoretically allow for up to 96dB of dynamic range - you might want to consider a non-quantization noise floor of -116dB to remove the noise floor from bumping up the overall noise to the region whee it might be audible on some pieces of music or music poorly mastered. |
#338
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
Bromo wrote:
On 5/25/04 9:57 PM, in article WPSsc.8102$eT4.4361@attbi_s54, "S888Wheel" wrote: I am an extreme subjectivist. I attempt to listen to ONLY acoustical performance. So do most audiophiles. What else can you listen to in the context od audio evaluation? Subjectivists are audiophiles as well as objectivists - they divide themselves into the two camps and spend idle hours lobbing NG posts at one another! :-) Ain't that the truth! Bruce J. Richman |
#339
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
On 5/26/04 10:25 AM, in article 5N1tc.115702$536.21527293@attbi_s03, "chung"
wrote: We cannot be sure which, if any, relate to sonic character... You do not have to be sure about whether a measurement is relevant or not to call it objective. You are correct, but it might not be useful, either. Example: frequency response of an amplifier. It is objective, regardless of whether you believe it is relevant for *you* or not. |
#341
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
On 5/26/04 7:42 PM, in article 3Y9tc.29337$af3.1619587@attbi_s51, "Bruce J.
Richman" wrote: Better still, as Mr. Wheeler suggests (and he can correct me if I'm wrong), a moderator's decision should at some point be made to NOT permit any more posts within a given thread when/after it has degenerated into those opposed to a given poster's views resorting to fraudulent misrepresentatios of what the poster has actually said. I disagree with this sentiment. I think a moderator should keep out personal attacks, spam and so on, but skate the fine line of passion - since passion about high end audio is what this group is about. |
#342
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Bromo wrote:
On 5/26/04 7:42 PM, in article 3Y9tc.29337$af3.1619587@attbi_s51, "Bruce J. Richman" wrote: Better still, as Mr. Wheeler suggests (and he can correct me if I'm wrong), a moderator's decision should at some point be made to NOT permit any more posts within a given thread when/after it has degenerated into those opposed to a given poster's views resorting to fraudulent misrepresentatios of what the poster has actually said. I disagree with this sentiment. I think a moderator should keep out personal attacks, spam and so on, but skate the fine line of passion - since passion about high end audio is what this group is about. I have no problem in "passionately" stating my views and would certainly favor others having equal rights. However, when a poster appears to deliberately misrepresent what another poster has said - and worse yet, then proceeds to attack the very misrepresentation that they just created, that is patently dishonest. It may or may not involve personal attacks, which I agree, should be eliminated from RAHE. Use of perjorative terms, accusations of "strawmen", "rubbish", and other inflammatory epithets leveled at others, however, seems to be fairly common. What amuses me is that some people can so cavalierly allege that "person A says that ...................(fill in your favorite fantasy)", when in fact they can NOT provide any quotation to support that type of misrepresentation. At some point, most of the personal attacks and counterattacks become repetitious and redundant in my view, despite the mighty efforts of the originators and responders to justify them. So, at some point, I think the RAHE moderators would be well advised to declare a set date/time perhaps after which no further "repetitions" will be allowed. Hopefully, this would only be applied to a few threads. A side benefit might be that people would be more encouraged to discuss other things and start new threads on other topics. YMMV. Bruce J. Richman |
#343
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Bromo wrote:
On 5/25/04 8:46 PM, in article , "Chung" wrote: Sure it's a measurement. It is however a subjective measurement. Kind of like a four star movie. Would anyone else say that whether you decide a movie is a 3 star or 4 star movie constitutes a measurement? How is your definition of a star going to be the same as someone else's? How about deciding whether you like vanilla or chocolate ice-cream. Is that a measurement also? Or whether you like tube amps or transistor amp. Is that a measurement also?I believe that even Mr, Bromo said that measurements are objective. I measurement can be done by anyone else and have the exact same result within the measurement error of the meter used. If I understand you correctly, that disqualifies subjective impressions as measurements. Making any sort of declaration about the implications of the measurement - that is where the objective is left and subjective takes over. Yes and no, depending on the implications. There clearly are implications that are objective. For example, you make a frequency response measurement of an amplifier. The results do not meet the published specs. One implication of the measurement is that specs are not met, and that is objective and not subjective. Of course there are implications, like whether the frequency response errors are acceptable to the listener, that can be subjective. You can make a judgement about the flavor or type of ice cream you like - after experiencing it. You are measuring it - though you may not be recording any data in a lab book. Your conclusions are just that - but the tasting you do is measurement nonetheless! I am confused here, since this contradicts what you said 2 paragraphs ago. When you watch a movie, are you measuring it? |
#344
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
|
#346
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
Bromo wrote:
On 5/26/04 10:25 AM, in article 5N1tc.115702$536.21527293@attbi_s03, "chung" wrote: We cannot be sure which, if any, relate to sonic character... You do not have to be sure about whether a measurement is relevant or not to call it objective. You are correct, but it might not be useful, either. Well, no one ever said that all measurements are equally useful... Example: frequency response of an amplifier. It is objective, regardless of whether you believe it is relevant for *you* or not. |
#347
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Bruce J. Richman wrote:
Scott Wheeler wrote: From: Chung Date: 5/25/2004 5:46 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: S888Wheel wrote: From: chung Date: 5/20/2004 3:55 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: Bruce J. Richman wrote: The "controlled listening tests" obviously involve the listeners determining whether the DUT's sound the same or different. This is a form of measurement, although on a dichotomous basis rather than an interval scale. Every data point recorded in an ABX test or even in a more simple A/B comparison is obviously a measurement of the observer's ability to differentiate or not differentiate between the the 2 components being evaluated. That's got to be one of the most convoluted explanations (should I say excuses?) I have ever seen. So when you listen to two pieces of equipment, A and B, and you decide A is better, have you made a measurement? According to your definition, you have, since the fact that you prefer A over B is obviously a measurement of your ability to differentiate between A and B. Seems to me that you, being a subjectivist, based on selections/preferences on measurements, too! You're sure you're not an objectivist? Sure it's a measurement. It is however a subjective measurement. Kind of like a four star movie. Would anyone else say that whether you decide a movie is a 3 star or 4 star movie constitutes a measurement? People say all kinds of things. I asked my wife if I decide a movie is a four star movie is that a measurement of the quality of that movie. She said yes. Other opinions may vary. How is your definition of a star going to be the same as someone else's? The definition is pretty standard. It is a four tier scale of excellence. But it is a subjective measurement so not all movies will get the same number of stars from different people. How about deciding whether you like vanilla or chocolate ice-cream. Is that a measurement also? Sure it's a measure of favor. Again it is subjective. Or whether you like tube amps or transistor amp. Is that a measurement also?I believe that even Mr, Bromo said that measurements are objective. Nobody is disputing the fact that *some* measurements afre objective in the sense that they are performed with instrumentation in which the results can be replicated. I see nothing in Bromo's or Scoitt Wheeler's comments to indicate that they, or other subjectivists for that matter, believe that *all* measurements are objective. This would appear to be a strawman erected by some objectivists that don't agree. Obviously Mr. Wheeler believes that not all measurements are objective; that's the point of the debate! Here's what Mr. Bromo said on 5/20 in a post to the thread "Subjectivists and Objectivist..." "I agree that data is objective - and measurements (be they ears or electrical traces on an oscilloscope) are, too." It would appear that Mr. Bromo, at least at one time, believes that measurements are objective, too. Do you disagree? Here is what a dictionary says. Measu 5 : to estimate or appraise by a criterion measures his skill against his rival An appraisal is a measurement. It is subjective and it fits all of your questions above. You won't find the four stars on any test bench will you? That's why calling a movie 4-star is not a measurement. The dictionary online agrees with me not you. Or would you say that it isn't an apraisal either? The online dictionary sees them as synonymous. I also noted that you sneaked in another strawman, that measurements require a bench. Really? I said it "required" a bench? No. I said some measurements ( the quality of a movie in this case) won't be found on a bench so obviously I was saying just the opposite. There has been a disturbing trend in this thread for subjectivists to be continuously misrepresented by a few objectivists. Here is yet another example of a person's comments being misrepresented to facilitate an argument against them. Unfortunately, both Marcus and Pinkerton have engaqed in the same behavior in my view re. various things they *allege* that I've said, but can not prove in any way. Mr. Chung's allegation that I've said only ABX tests are measurements is also false. That's interesting. Here's what you said on 5/24: "More specifically, my comments re. measurements had *only* to do with DBT's as normally conducted, and *not* the practice of simply listening to a product and forming a subjective impression." That was a response to my statement that according to you, "every listening comparison that results in a perceived, subjective, difference is a "measurement"". So you were saying only the subjective listening employed in DBT's are measurements, but listening to a product and forming a subjective impression is *not* a measurement. While Mr. Wheeler says that the latter is, just like deciding whether to have vanilla or chocolate ice cream constitutes a measurement. Snip the rest, since obviously we have trouble deciding what has been said . |
#348
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
|
#349
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Bromo wrote:
On 5/26/04 10:25 AM, in article yN1tc.63485$gr.6218639@attbi_s52, "chung" wrote: So much for objectivists respecting preferences. So you are assuming I'm an objectivist? You are perfectly welcome to prefer incompetent equipment. I perfectly respect your preference. That does not detract from the fact that there are incompetent products preferred by someone. "incompetent" is a subjective judgement. It is NOT data based or objective in character. If you have been following this thread so far, you should have realized that my concept of "competent" is different than Mr. S888Wheel's. Hence it is obvious that it is subjective. Clearly those who prefer what I consider incompetent products do not think of such products as incompetent. |
#351
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
From: (Nousaine) Date: 5/26/2004 5:23 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: Bromo wrote: On 5/25/04 9:57 PM, in article WPSsc.8102$eT4.4361@attbi_s54, "S888Wheel" wrote: I am an extreme subjectivist. I attempt to listen to ONLY acoustical performance. So do most audiophiles. What else can you listen to in the context od audio evaluation? Subjectivists are audiophiles as well as objectivists - they divide themselves into the two camps and spend idle hours lobbing NG posts at one another! :-) Good one :-) But frankly I don't know any "audiophiles" in the subjectivist sense who have a set of common materials to use for evaluation. I just posted that I do and now you say you don't know any. What's up with that? I'm sure that "some" exist but its not common. How do you know if you can't remember one that identified himslef in such a short time? And I don't see any kind of consistentcy in high-end magazine reviews either. It is true that often the big-book reviews don't have such consistency either. Probably becuase audiophilia is a hobby and not a clinical study. My main point is thatn IMO and IME 'subjectivists' as a class do not ordinarily use ordinary techniques for help in reducing the effects of commonly known and easily demonstrated bias elements to help restrict perception and conclusion to acoustically reproduced sound. such broad claims are not really of much value and lead to mischaracterizations of individuals. This is the definition of prejudice. |
#352
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
Bromo wrote:
On 5/26/04 7:42 PM, in article 3Y9tc.29337$af3.1619587@attbi_s51, "Bruce J. Richman" wrote: Better still, as Mr. Wheeler suggests (and he can correct me if I'm wrong), a moderator's decision should at some point be made to NOT permit any more posts within a given thread when/after it has degenerated into those opposed to a given poster's views resorting to fraudulent misrepresentatios of what the poster has actually said. I disagree with this sentiment. I think a moderator should keep out personal attacks, spam and so on, but skate the fine line of passion - since passion about high end audio is what this group is about. all of which makes me wonder, why hasn't there been a post to RAHE-discuss (the yahoo group for meta-discussion of RAHE) since *January*? -- -S. "They've got God on their side. All we've got is science and reason." -- Dawn Hulsey, Talent Director |
#353
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
On Wed, 26 May 2004 02:02:43 GMT, (S888Wheel) wrote:
From: chung Date: 5/25/2004 5:14 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: Bromo wrote: On 5/24/04 9:34 PM, in article Loxsc.38298$zw.20454@attbi_s01, "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote: Of course, they could say, any 'competent' wine must have a specific gravity between x and y. Quite so, as one might say that any competent amplifier should have THD below 0.1%. Except that many people prefer a THD of the right H to be 1% or more - colorations and all. So some people prefer incompetent amps. What else is new? And with the wrong H, a 0.1% may sound grainy and nasty. So to declare that a 0.1% might just be a subjective judgement. Note that he said any competent amp should have THD below 0.1%. He did not say that all amps with 0.1% THD will be competent. Competence is in the eye of the designer. If the amp does what the designer set out for that amp to do the amp and it's designer are competent. So much for objectivists respecting preferences. A claim of incompetence is about as disrespectful as it can get. The context is *high fidelity* amplifiers, as you well know. In that context, any amp with more than 0.1% THD at any level up to say 75% of full power across the 20-20,000Hz band, may safely be described as incompetent. This is nothing to do with those who may prefer the distinctive sound of such an amplifier, such as a SET amp, designed by someone who is choosing to target that market. -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
#354
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
On 27 May 2004 00:19:42 GMT, Bromo wrote:
On 5/26/04 10:22 AM, in article YK1tc.4335$Ly.4238@attbi_s01, "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote: I would agree with that - but if the music you listen to has a dynamic range of 20dB - that would imply to have grainless sound you would at least need to be 65dB down from the peak. Not at all, as the distortion artifacts will of course track the signal, so as long as they are 45dB below the signal level at any time, they should be inaudible. You are making my point perfectly. No, you are *missing* the point. If I listen to music with loud and quiet passages - such as some orchestral pieces - I might be at 0dB (peak) or -20dB. If my noise floor is at -45dB then it will be audible in quieter passages. If I account for that in my design - I would make my noise floor AT LEAST -65dB if -20dB is as quiet as it gets. I said nothing about the noise floor, I was discussing *distortion*, which tracks the signal level (in any competent amp!). The level of audibility of the noise floor is quite another matter, and is more commonly set by room ambience than by the recording. As CD would theoretically allow for up to 96dB of dynamic range Actually 93, with a properly-made recording - but who's counting? - you might want to consider a non-quantization noise floor of -116dB to remove the noise floor from bumping up the overall noise to the region whee it might be audible on some pieces of music or music poorly mastered. As I previously noted, there is no known *master tape* with a dynamic range greater than about 80dB, so CD is more than adequate for its purpose, and the rest of the gear need have a noise floor no lower than say 90dB below peak level. This will still set the noise floor below room ambience for almost all domestic hi-fi systems. -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
#355
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
On Wed, 26 May 2004 04:18:43 GMT, (Michael
Scarpitti) wrote: Stewart Pinkerton wrote in message news:lYJsc.58094$gr.5702314@attbi_s52... On Tue, 25 May 2004 01:56:07 GMT, Bromo wrote: On 5/24/04 9:34 PM, in article Loxsc.38298$zw.20454@attbi_s01, "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote: Of course, they could say, any 'competent' wine must have a specific gravity between x and y. Quite so, as one might say that any competent amplifier should have THD below 0.1%. Except that many people prefer a THD of the right H to be 1% or more - colorations and all. Indeed they do - but the amplifier is still fundamentally incompetent as a high fidelity device. That is false on its face. If MOST auditors prefer the sound of colored amplification, then THAT is 'high fidelity' to the ideal. Rubbish. The output of a high fidelity amplifier is an enlarged but otherwise *exact* representaion of its input signal. This has *nothing* to do with personal preference, and everything to do with the classic description of 'a straight wire with gain', coined by Peter Walker of The Acoustical Manufacturing Company, aka QUAD. Creating an amplifier that SOUNDS perfect may be harder than to produce one that MEASURES perfect. Not really - they are the same. Any amplifier which measures perfectly, will produce at its output an *exact* replica of its input signal. Anything else is *by definition* inferior. Just as in lenses, wher it can be shown that higher resolution by itself does not make 'better' lenses. Many Leica lenses, for instance, have designs which deliberately chose one kind of correction over another (because it is impossible to correct fully for all aberations) because the overall image quality is better for the purposes for which the lens is intended. That is of course true of *all* lens designs, not just Leicas. Leitz lenses in fact are known to have the highest edge resolution of any design. They sacrifice a fraction of central resolution to achieve this, but the resolution across the entire field is arguably superior to anything bar a Zeiss equivalent. Choices have to be made in the design of any product, given manufacturing and engineering constraints of the price that can be placed on the item and sold. Well of course. That's what engineering *is*. An engineer is someone who can make for a dollar, what any fool can make for 10. The Leica 50mm f/1,4 Summilux-R http://www.leica-camera.com/imperia/...jektive/63.pdf retails for about $2200, http://store.yahoo.com/tamarkin/la11344.html whereas the Nikon or Canon lens of the same speed and focal length sells for far less (about $300) And they have inferior flatness of field and edge resolution, but better central resolution. http://www.ritzcamera.com/webapp/wcs...&cat2= 915144 http://www.adorama.com/refby.tpl?ref...CA5014AF&st=NA What is interesting is that VISUALLY the Leica 50mm Summilux-R rips these other lenses to shreds, It has marginally better edge resolution and flatness of field - hardly 'rips to shreds'. Is this another example of a subjectivist equating price and badge with quality? Having said that, I have a collection of some 7,000 35mm slides, mostly shot on Kodachrome 25 with a combination of Zeiss, Minolta and Nikon optics, and there are perhaps half a dozen where image quality is limited by the lens. but it is possible that the Japanese lenses may measure better in certain ways that are often considered as contributing to the excellence of a lens (e.g., flatness of field). No, you are utterly wrong on this point, as Zeiss and Leitz lenses are generally superior in that measure. I know this because I tested the earlier versions of both the Nikon 50mm f/1.4 and the Leica 50mm Summilux-R 30 years ago, and the Leica lens was clearly superior for taking the kind of pictures that ones uses a high-speed lens for. What kind of pictures would those be? The contrast was noticeably higher in the Leica lens; That has *mostly* to do with the surface coating (and the number of elements), and Zeiss T* lenses are the best in this regard. astigmatism was less also. The lens has an amazing depth and three-dimensionality. Excuse me? Since when did 'depth and three-dimensionality' become lens properties? Sounds like a simple function of contrast - and you should note that this can also be controlled in the design of the lens. Video lenses are an excellent example, where they have relatively low resolution but high contrast up to the limit of that resolution. The Leica lens had a bit more distortion in the extreme corners and a little more vignetting (drop-off in illumination) in the extreme corners as well as bit of curvature of field. But for 95% of the image area, the Leica lens absolutely trounced the Nikon lens, which was kind of blah overall. The qualities that made the Leica lens superior were the result of: 1. Superior raw glass, which possesses more desirable optical properties (glass not available to other mfrs) Rubbish, if anything it's Canon who always made use of exotic glasses. 2. Superior manufacturing capabilities (target tolerances and consistency, such as polishing to 1/10,000mm on EVERY lens) Rubbish. Nikon, Canon and Minolta manufacturing facilities are every bit as precise as those available to Leitz. Personally, I regard them all as poor relations of Zeiss...................... 3. Superior understanding of 'real-world' optical needs and thus superior design decisions Rubbish, this is a purely subjective opinion. You might be interested to know that Nikon gained supremacy in the professional photography world because they *deliberately* enhanced centre sharpness to give added punch to press photographers, who invariably place their subjects centre frame for speed and certainty, as opposed to carefully composed 'art' photography. So, what is the 'objective' measure of the lens? MTF, flatness of field, contrast, chromatic aberration, and resolution from edge to edge. Check out dpreview.com sometime............. Without a profound understanding of HOW the lens is being used, it is impossible to design the best one. No sh1t.................... So, even though the Leica lens gives up a bit in the extreme corners to the Nikon lens, for the other 95% there is no comparison: the Leica lens triumphs. So, even though both the Canon and Nikon lenses are 'competent', that means nothing. Especially since you got that comparison totally back-asswards, and none of what you say applies to the *modern* equivalents to which you gave URLs. Lens design has come a *long* way since the '70s, thanks to ray-tracing computers and modern assembly techniques. The very best lens I ever owned was a 135mm f2.8 Rokkor, but that was just a lucky chance of components and assembly. BTW, most serious photographers would disagree with your comparisons, and would note that with a Zeiss Planar, you could have it all! -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
#356
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
On 26 May 2004 23:59:03 GMT, Bromo wrote:
Okay guys - How do you choose and purchase your equipment? Do you listen to it before plunking down your hard earned money? For myself, I check the specs and any available technical reviews to check that it meets my basic requirements, then I listen at home in my own system, before parting with the hard-earned. Of course, if I'm buying wire, I just get it off the cheapest reel I can find.... :-) -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
#357
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
Nousaine wrote:
* James Boyk once wrote that there are only two meaningful measurements on a spec sheet: the dimensions, which tell you if it'll fit on your shelf, and the weight, which tells you if your shelf will hold it. He should have also considered how much "heat" it will generate ;-) Wow; Boyk has gotten downright cogent over time. Not necessarily. He wrote that in 1978. bob __________________________________________________ _______________ MSN Toolbar provides one-click access to Hotmail from any Web page – FREE download! http://toolbar.msn.click-url.com/go/...ave/direct/01/ |
#358
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
(Nousaine) wrote in message
... (Bruce J. Richman) wrote: Even the content of such magazines as Stereophile and The Absolute Sound, contain relatively few cable reviews, nor do their letter columns or websites give the subject of cable evaluations a very prominent place in comparison with the attention devoted to other classes of equipment. Oh really. Hmmm the latest issue of Stereophile seem to prominently lists every cable used in every review. Of course. I don't think a system can produce an output without interconnects or loudspeaker cables. A study of one of the last few years Reviewed Components for the previous years showed 12% were cabling; more than any other single product category except digital components and loudspeakers (21% each.) MORE than preamplifiers, power amps, integrated amps, phono carts, turntables, tuners, and headphones. Which years was that Mr. Nousaine? If you go to the overall index of components reviewed by Stereophile (accessible at http://www.stereophile.com/images/ma...dex/index.html), you would get a different impression. For example, Stereophile has published 116 reviews of cables between 1962 and the end of 2003. Admittedly, some of the reviews indexed were of more than one cable, but to give that number a context, Stereophile also reviewed 116 headphones and headphone amplifiers in the same period. We also reviewed 269 FM tuners, 317 preamplifiers... 835 loudspeakers. I think the picture is clear. With respect, I suggest you are merely dredging among the data to support your conclusion. John Atkinson Editor, Stereophile |
#359
|
|||
|
|||
Subjectivist and Objectivist -- Are these misnomers? (WAS:
(S888Wheel) wrote:
: From: (Nousaine) Date: 5/26/2004 5:23 PM Pacific Standard Time Message-id: Bromo wrote: On 5/25/04 9:57 PM, in article WPSsc.8102$eT4.4361@attbi_s54, "S888Wheel" wrote: I am an extreme subjectivist. I attempt to listen to ONLY acoustical performance. So do most audiophiles. What else can you listen to in the context od audio evaluation? Subjectivists are audiophiles as well as objectivists - they divide themselves into the two camps and spend idle hours lobbing NG posts at one another! :-) Good one :-) But frankly I don't know any "audiophiles" in the subjectivist sense who have a set of common materials to use for evaluation. I just posted that I do and now you say you don't know any. What's up with that? I don't know you. I only see what you say on line. Not that I disagree with you on this point; it's just that I don't "see" people who call themselves "audiophiles" using common material for evaluation. And as far as I can see there isn't any consistency of programs in written high-end reviews. I'm sure that "some" exist but its not common. As above. How do you know if you can't remember one that identified himslef in such a short time? As above. And I don't see any kind of consistentcy in high-end magazine reviews either. It is true that often the big-book reviews don't have such consistency either. Probably becuase audiophilia is a hobby and not a clinical study. But written evaluations in print are taken to be a sign of proficiency. My main point is thatn IMO and IME 'subjectivists' as a class do not ordinarily use ordinary techniques for help in reducing the effects of commonly known and easily demonstrated bias elements to help restrict perception and conclusion to acoustically reproduced sound. such broad claims are not really of much value and lead to mischaracterizations of individuals. This is the definition of prejudice. Prejudice? Wow; you don't believe that all of my amplifiers sound the same? Why not come here are listen to them yourself? I think that you probably believe that your amplifier(s) sound different from one another. Why not show me that this is true with a bias-controlled test in your reference system? |
#360
|
|||
|
|||
Doing an "evaluation" test, or has it already been done?
(John Atkinson) wrote:
(Nousaine) wrote in message ... (Bruce J. Richman) wrote: Even the content of such magazines as Stereophile and The Absolute Sound, contain relatively few cable reviews, nor do their letter columns or websites give the subject of cable evaluations a very prominent place in comparison with the attention devoted to other classes of equipment. Oh really. Hmmm the latest issue of Stereophile seem to prominently lists every cable used in every review. Of course. I don't think a system can produce an output without interconnects or loudspeaker cables. A study of one of the last few years Reviewed Components for the previous years showed 12% were cabling; more than any other single product category except digital components and loudspeakers (21% each.) MORE than preamplifiers, power amps, integrated amps, phono carts, turntables, tuners, and headphones. Which years was that Mr. Nousaine? If you go to the overall index of components reviewed by Stereophile (accessible at http://www.stereophile.com/images/ma...dex/index.html), you would get a different impression. For example, Stereophile has published 116 reviews of cables between 1962 and the end of 2003. Admittedly, some of the reviews indexed were of more than one cable, but to give that number a context, Stereophile also reviewed 116 headphones and headphone amplifiers in the same period. We also reviewed 269 FM tuners, 317 preamplifiers... 835 loudspeakers. I think the picture is clear. With respect, I suggest you are merely dredging among the data to support your conclusion. John Atkinson Editor, Stereophile Thank you for the updated count. It would appear from your numbers that for every 3 preamplifiers and every 8 loudspeakers you publish a wire review. My listing was from the year 2001 as I recall. That was back when you were still claiming the RCL had 700+ Recommended Components when there were fewer than 550 on the List. Pretty good dredging job I'd say. Actually at a PSACS meeting during that time a member made a caustic remark that he thought most every amplifier Stereophile reviewed appeared on the RCL. Accordingly we grabbed the January list of components reviewed for the priort year and compared it to the spring RCL list. The answer to the question "How Many of the Amplifiers Reviewed in the prior year appeared on the RCL?" could be simply stated "all of them." A casual examination seemed to indicate the same answer looked to hold pretty much true for many product categories. I guess you don't need to analyze data when you've never met an amplifier you didn't like :-) It seemed to me at the time that the old complaint about Julian Hirsch could have been equally well applied to Stereophile. |
Reply |
Thread Tools | |
Display Modes | |
|
|
Similar Threads | ||||
Thread | Forum | |||
ALL amps are equal?? | Car Audio | |||
Light weight system challenge | Car Audio | |||
Note to the Idiot | Audio Opinions | |||
Mechanic blames amplifier for alternator failing?? Help>>>>>>>>>>> | Car Audio | |||
Southeast Invitational Sound Challenge | Car Audio |