Those surrounding frequencies are called harmonics which appears as a
slope around the centered frequencies. You'd get a better understanding
if you see the output on a graph. You'll see that if you boost or cut
XX number of db's at a certain frequency, it would almost resemble a
hill or a ditch.


--
Vestax05pro


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Actually, no one was talking about harmonics. The "surrounding
frequencies" we're talking about are the ones that make up the "hill"
or "ditch" that you described. Harmonics aren't right next to the
frequencies being adjusted - they're higher, by an integer multiple.
So, if you have a 100 Hz tone, it will create harmonics of itself at
200 Hz, 300 Hz, 400 Hz, and so on.

Usually, the first harmonic or a note is high enough up in the
frequency spectrum that it's not going to end up in the same equalizer
band as the fundamental note that created it.

Scott Gardner

Thanks for the correction. I know there are a couple of definitions
with harmonics (octaves, harmonics, etc) and I've always thought that's
what people referred "surrounding frequencies" as harmonics. Most
people just call referred them as just that, surrounding frequencies.


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Vestax05pro


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I have a question regarding Equalizers.

I am confused as to what the range of frequencies to be affected would
be, even if just one "band" was raised or lowered.

For example, lets take a 7-band EQ for explanatory purposes.

Lets say that the following frequencies represent the 7-bands:

62Hz, 157Hz, 396Hz, 1kHz, 2.5kHz, 6.3kHz, 16kHz

Now, if I were to lower the 6.3kHz band, will this ONLY effect music
at EXACTLY 6.3kHz?? Or does it effect everything in-between 2.5kHz and
16kHz??

Understand my confusion?

What if I wanted to lower the overall highs in a system, and lowered
the 4-bands from 1kHz-16kHz by 3dB. Would this actually lower
EVERYTHING from 1-16kHz, or would certain frequencies(that are not
represented by their own "band") still play at full volume??

Am I making any sense here?

One more example: I lower all 7-bands by 6dB, and play a test-tone at
4kHz. Is this test-tone played at full volume(seeing as it doesn't
have it's own "band") or is effected by the other bands and now
lowered by 6dB??

I appologize if this is a stupid question, but it's something I just
started to think about, and couldn't really answer myself.

Because I think the question makes sense.

In the above example, which is Sony's EQ7, the bass range jumps from
62-157Hz, so if someone bumped those up, would a 100Hz bass line also
be bumped up or not?? One part of me says the logical answer is YES,
but the other part of me says NO because there's no band centered
exactly at 100Hz.

Anyone??

THANKS!

I have a question regarding Equalizers.

I am confused as to what the range of frequencies to be affected would
be, even if just one "band" was raised or lowered.

For example, lets take a 7-band EQ for explanatory purposes.

Lets say that the following frequencies represent the 7-bands:

62Hz, 157Hz, 396Hz, 1kHz, 2.5kHz, 6.3kHz, 16kHz

Now, if I were to lower the 6.3kHz band, will this ONLY effect music
at EXACTLY 6.3kHz?? Or does it effect everything in-between 2.5kHz and
16kHz??

It affects the frequencies in the 6.3kHz vicinity. This isn't necessarily
everything between 2.5k and 16k, but it may be something like 5k-8k (I
selected those numbers just for illustrative purposes). And, if it's truly
centered at 6.3k, it will affect 6.3k more than 5k and 8k. In other words,
it's a small band of frequencies that are effected, and the number on the
dial is the center frequency. The width of the affected area will often
vary from unit to unit, but is often indicated in the spec sheet as the "Q".


Understand my confusion?

What if I wanted to lower the overall highs in a system, and lowered
the 4-bands from 1kHz-16kHz by 3dB. Would this actually lower
EVERYTHING from 1-16kHz, or would certain frequencies(that are not
represented by their own "band") still play at full volume??

For all intents and purposes, you'll be lowering all frequencies above 1kHz.
They often design the Q based on the number of bands in the EQ. If there
are very few bands, they'll make the affected region wider than if there are
a lot of bands.


Am I making any sense here?

One more example: I lower all 7-bands by 6dB, and play a test-tone at
4kHz. Is this test-tone played at full volume(seeing as it doesn't
have it's own "band") or is effected by the other bands and now
lowered by 6dB??

I appologize if this is a stupid question, but it's something I just
started to think about, and couldn't really answer myself.

Because I think the question makes sense.

In the above example, which is Sony's EQ7, the bass range jumps from
62-157Hz, so if someone bumped those up, would a 100Hz bass line also
be bumped up or not?? One part of me says the logical answer is YES,
but the other part of me says NO because there's no band centered
exactly at 100Hz.

Yes, it would be bumped up.

On Wed, 16 Feb 2005 12:09:17 -0500, "MZ"
wrote:

I have a question regarding Equalizers.

I am confused as to what the range of frequencies to be affected would
be, even if just one "band" was raised or lowered.

For example, lets take a 7-band EQ for explanatory purposes.

Lets say that the following frequencies represent the 7-bands:

62Hz, 157Hz, 396Hz, 1kHz, 2.5kHz, 6.3kHz, 16kHz

Now, if I were to lower the 6.3kHz band, will this ONLY effect music
at EXACTLY 6.3kHz?? Or does it effect everything in-between 2.5kHz and
16kHz??

I'll piggyback on Mark's post. As he said, surrounding freqencies
will be affected. How wide the affected area is depends on the 'Q' of
the equalizer. Keep in mind that the 'Q' might not be a constant
value. With many equalizers, the more you boost or cut a particular
band, the wider the 'Q' becomes. Let's use your 6.3 kHz center
frequency as an example. If you only boosted that band by 1 dB, the
range of affected frequencies would be small. If you put in a big
boost, like +12dB, then the affected range would be much wider.

Some manufacturers design their equalizers so that they have a lot of
bands, and each band has a fairly small 'Q' that does NOT change
depending on how much boost or cut you dial in. The AudioControl
3-band EQT is an example of a "constant-Q" design.

Scott Gardner

On Wed, 16 Feb 2005 06:03:56 +0000, Vestax05pro
wrote:


Those surrounding frequencies are called harmonics which appears as a
slope around the centered frequencies. You'd get a better understanding
if you see the output on a graph. You'll see that if you boost or cut
XX number of db's at a certain frequency, it would almost resemble a
hill or a ditch.


Actually, no one was talking about harmonics. The "surrounding
frequencies" we're talking about are the ones that make up the "hill"
or "ditch" that you described. Harmonics aren't right next to the
frequencies being adjusted - they're higher, by an integer multiple.
So, if you have a 100 Hz tone, it will create harmonics of itself at
200 Hz, 300 Hz, 400 Hz, and so on.

Usually, the first harmonic or a note is high enough up in the
frequency spectrum that it's not going to end up in the same equalizer
band as the fundamental note that created it.

Scott Gardner

To further illustrate Q, think of the frequency output on a graph. If you
raised 6.3kHz 6dB and then measured it on a graph, it would resemble a hill
as Vestax05pro suggested. The smaller the Q, the steeper the hill. It
would look like this only with the point pointed up. A larger Q
would look like this ) but also pointed up. Hope that helps.

Tony


--
2001 Nissan Maxima SE Anniversary Edition
Eclipse CD8454 Head Unit, Phoenix Gold ZX475ti, ZX450 and ZX500 Amplifiers,
Phoenix Gold EQ-232 30-Band EQ, Dynaudio System 360 Tri-Amped In Front and
Focal 130HCs For Rear Fill, 2 Soundstream EXACT10s In Aperiodic Enclosure

2001 Chevy S10 ZR2
Pioneer DEH-P9600MP (Just gettin' started)

"bigbossfan80" wrote in message
om...
I have a question regarding Equalizers.

I am confused as to what the range of frequencies to be affected would
be, even if just one "band" was raised or lowered.

For example, lets take a 7-band EQ for explanatory purposes.

Lets say that the following frequencies represent the 7-bands:

62Hz, 157Hz, 396Hz, 1kHz, 2.5kHz, 6.3kHz, 16kHz

Now, if I were to lower the 6.3kHz band, will this ONLY effect music
at EXACTLY 6.3kHz?? Or does it effect everything in-between 2.5kHz and
16kHz??

Understand my confusion?

What if I wanted to lower the overall highs in a system, and lowered
the 4-bands from 1kHz-16kHz by 3dB. Would this actually lower
EVERYTHING from 1-16kHz, or would certain frequencies(that are not
represented by their own "band") still play at full volume??

Am I making any sense here?

One more example: I lower all 7-bands by 6dB, and play a test-tone at
4kHz. Is this test-tone played at full volume(seeing as it doesn't
have it's own "band") or is effected by the other bands and now
lowered by 6dB??

I appologize if this is a stupid question, but it's something I just
started to think about, and couldn't really answer myself.

Because I think the question makes sense.

In the above example, which is Sony's EQ7, the bass range jumps from
62-157Hz, so if someone bumped those up, would a 100Hz bass line also
be bumped up or not?? One part of me says the logical answer is YES,
but the other part of me says NO because there's no band centered
exactly at 100Hz.

Anyone??

THANKS!

To further illustrate Q, think of the frequency output on a graph. If you
raised 6.3kHz 6dB and then measured it on a graph, it would resemble a
hill
as Vestax05pro suggested. The smaller the Q, the steeper the hill. It
would look like this only with the point pointed up. A larger Q
would look like this ) but also pointed up. Hope that helps.

Tony

What if it looks like this, {, or this, ~?

"MOSFET" wrote in message
...
To further illustrate Q, think of the frequency output on a graph. If
you
raised 6.3kHz 6dB and then measured it on a graph, it would resemble a
hill
as Vestax05pro suggested. The smaller the Q, the steeper the hill. It
would look like this only with the point pointed up. A larger Q
would look like this ) but also pointed up. Hope that helps.

Tony

What if it looks like this, {, or this, ~?


Then you apparently bought a pyramid

Then you apparently bought a pyramid

lol