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Do blind tests need being "calibrated" ?
In article ,
Audio Empire wrote: it comes down to that old Frederick Nietsche=20 connundrum first postulated in his "Man and Superman": "If a tree = falls in=20 the forest and there is no one there to hear it fall, did it make a = sound?"=20 If old Nietsche had had access to Google he could have answered that. = And the answer is: It depends on the definition of the word "sound". = Some definitions are only about the vibrations generated, so the answer = is "yes", the tree made a sound. Some definitions include the sensation = in the hearing apparatus, in which case the answer is "no" because no = one heard it, there was no sound. In the case of the "sensation included" definitions we are back to one = of the favourite problems in hi-fi--"If I can't hear it, or that test = didn't hear it, then it doesn't exist." Which of course is perfectly = correct when using that definition. And possibly incorrect when using = other definitions. This is one of the reasons why many discussions here go nowhere--no = common definitions are being used. Greg= |
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