On Saturday, June 8, 2013 4:26:15 AM UTC+8, Audio_Empire wrote:
In article ,
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STC wrote:
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The difference might have been caused by channel imbalance.=20
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What difference? You really need to quote the text of the post to which=
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you are responding. Otherwise most people will have no idea what you are=
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even talking about. I sure haven't a clue about what you mean.
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Sorry about that. I was using Ipad and I thought it would auto include the =
quote the post.
But if you
"Tweek" one channel and not the other, you will hear a difference in an
ad-hoc blind test (have your significant other switch between them).
There are just too many variables using your method for blind test. PreAmps=
and Amps with identical channels are rare if not impossible. Even speakers=
may not be identical. A small difference in the loudness between the two c=
hannels is enough to affect our judgment.
I am not saying you heard no difference but suggesting you may want to elim=
inate possible oversights in your test methodology. I am speaking from my o=
wn experience.=20