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On Monday, January 7, 2013 8:44:28 PM UTC-5, Mark DeBellis wrote:
[quoted text deleted -- deb] On Jan 7, 7:24 pm,
wrote:

I mean consistently, so that the two signals have different causal
properties. It seems to me that that's possible.

As I said before, anything is possible. But there is no evidence that this can actually occur, and a lot of indirect evidence that it cannot occur. Until there's some real evidence that it can occur, there is no point in discussing it.

snip

So if you cannot hear it in a quick-switching blind test, and you cannot hear it outside a quick-switching blind test, just when CAN you hear it?

I didn't say you could.

Then your hypothetical is irrelevant.

It seems you have devised a hypothetical that is impossible in the real world.

Why impossible? There could not be sounds that affect loudness
sensitivity that are not directly audible?

No. Because you've devised a hypothetical in which you are claiming that something is audible, and yet admitting that there are no circumstances under which it is audible. You aren't making any sense.

bob