[Peter Larsen[_3_]]

Les Cargill wrote:

When I read this, I think maybe the writer thinks that one
4 ohm version of the "same" speaker should act as if it
were two 8 ohm versions in parallel.

I am the writer. My thought was that if efficiency in watts to produce
stated spl is the same then the 4 Ohm box should be louder because the same
voltage draws twice the current. With the amplifier being a Rotel dual mono
2 X 60 watts driven in the milliwatt range it gets difficult for me to see
what would cause current not to double when load impedance is halved.

"It's 3dB louder" is only true when the amp driving them/it
is current-constrained, and even then, it's messier than
"add 3dB".

Yes, it is "all things equal" understanding I had, reading Dicks exellent
reply easily provides a couple of places where alterations involved to go
from 8 Ohms to 4 Ohms would cost a couple of dB, that price three times = 6
dB and a probable explanation to the effect that the loudspeaker "just is
like that in its 4 Ohm version" is provided.

Thanks guys!

Kind regards

Peter Larsen